ARUNACHAL PRADESH TGT GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 2018 QUESTION PAPER WITH SOLUTIONS

1. What is the average radius of the Earth?

(A) 6371 km
(B) 12742 km
(C) 1055 km
(D) 750 km

✅ Correct Answer: (A) 6371 km

Explanation: The mean radius of the Earth is approximately 6371 km.

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2. Which is the correct sequence of the Earth's layers from the surface towards the centre?

(A) Crust → Core → Mantle
(B) Crust → Mantle → Core
(C) Mantle → Crust → Core
(D) Core → Crust → Mantle

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Crust → Mantle → Core

Explanation: The Earth consists of three main layers: Crust (outermost), Mantle (middle), and Core (innermost).

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3. The lower crust is mainly composed of rocks like—

(A) Basalt and Gabbro
(B) Silica and Magnesium
(C) Basalt and Silica
(D) Gabbro and Magnesium

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Basalt and Gabbro

Explanation: The lower continental crust is mainly composed of basaltic and gabbroic rocks.

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4. The Earth is made up of tectonic plates consisting of—

(A) 7 major and 50 minor plates
(B) 6 major and 20 minor plates
(C) 7 major and 20 minor plates
(D) 6 major and 50 minor plates

✅ Correct Answer: (C) 7 major and 20 minor plates

Explanation: The lithosphere is divided into 7 major and several minor tectonic plates.

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5. The process in which one tectonic plate slides beneath another is known as—

(A) Advection
(B) Subduction
(C) Convection
(D) Convergence

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Subduction

Explanation: Subduction occurs when one lithospheric plate moves beneath another into the mantle.

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6. Aeolian sedimentary rock is formed by sediments brought by—

(A) Wind
(B) Water
(C) Glacier
(D) Wave

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Wind

Explanation: The term Aeolian refers to processes associated with the action of wind.

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7. Dislocation of blocks of rock along a line of fracture is called—

(A) Landslide
(B) Fault
(C) Slope
(D) Gorge

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Fault

Explanation: A fault is a fracture in the Earth's crust along which displacement has occurred.

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8. The Continental Drift Theory was propounded by—

(A) Penck
(B) Griffith Taylor
(C) Peter Horris
(D) Alfred Wegener

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Alfred Wegener

Explanation: The Continental Drift Theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912.

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9. In which stage of the fluvial cycle of erosion is a V-shaped valley formed?

(A) Youthful stage of fluvial cycle of erosion
(B) Old age of arid cycle
(C) Old age of fluvial cycle of erosion
(D) Mature stage of glaciation erosion

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Youthful stage of fluvial cycle of erosion

Explanation: During the youthful stage, rivers actively erode vertically, producing V-shaped valleys.

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10. The term 'Pangaea' was coined by—

(A) A. N. Strahler
(B) W. M. Davis
(C) Sharp
(D) Alfred Wegener

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Alfred Wegener

Explanation: Alfred Wegener introduced the term Pangaea, meaning "all Earth."

11. An Atoll is one of the stages of—

(A) Coral development
(B) A natural reservoir
(C) A pressure system
(D) Development of carbon sink in the ocean

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Coral development

Explanation: An atoll is a ring-shaped coral reef formed during the evolution of coral islands.

12. The process in which hot rocks, either in liquid or solid form, are ejected from the Earth's interior is known as—

(A) Volcanism
(B) Volcano
(C) Earthquake
(D) Geyser

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Volcanism

Explanation: Volcanism refers to all processes involving the movement and eruption of magma and gases from the Earth's interior.

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13. Heat budget refers to—

(A) Solar radiation
(B) Temperature distribution
(C) Heat distribution
(D) Balance between incoming and outgoing radiation

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Balance between incoming and outgoing radiation

Explanation: The Earth's heat budget is the balance between the amount of incoming solar radiation and outgoing terrestrial radiation.

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14. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the formation of sedimentary rocks?

(A) Sedimentation → Compaction → Cementation → Stratification
(B) Compaction → Sedimentation → Cementation → Stratification
(C) Stratification → Sedimentation → Compaction → Cementation
(D) Cementation → Sedimentation → Compaction → Stratification

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Sedimentation → Compaction → Cementation → Stratification

Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are formed through the processes of sedimentation, compaction, cementation, and stratification.

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15. The vertical movement of cold water from deeper oceanic layers to replace warmer surface water is called—

(A) Upwelling
(B) Turbidity
(C) Emergence
(D) Halocline

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Upwelling

Explanation: Upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich water from deep ocean layers to the surface.

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16. The process by which rainfall is held by vegetation cover is called—

(A) Infiltration
(B) Interception
(C) Saturation
(D) Evaporation

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Interception

Explanation: Interception is the process by which vegetation temporarily stores rainfall on leaves, branches, and stems.

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17. Which of the following clouds occupies the highest layer of the atmosphere?

(A) Cumulonimbus
(B) Stratus
(C) Cumulus
(D) Cirrus

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Cirrus

Explanation: Cirrus clouds occur at high altitudes, usually above 6 km, and are composed mainly of ice crystals.

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18. The distribution of ocean salinity is shown with the help of—

(A) Isohaline
(B) Isobar
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isoneph

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Isohaline

Explanation: Isohalines are lines joining places with equal salinity.

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19. Effluent is associated with—

(A) Air pollution
(B) Noise pollution
(C) Soil pollution
(D) Water pollution

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Water pollution

Explanation: Effluents are liquid wastes discharged from industries, sewage systems, or other sources into water bodies.

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20. Xerophytes can tolerate and survive under—

(A) Drought conditions
(B) High temperature only
(C) Severe cold
(D) Humidity

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Drought conditions

Explanation: Xerophytes are plants adapted to survive in arid and dry environments with limited water availability.

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21. Ecological niche refers to—

(A) Interaction between man and environment
(B) The functional role of an organism in an ecosystem
(C) Interdependence of man and plant
(D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) The functional role of an organism in an ecosystem

Explanation: An ecological niche describes the role, position, and interactions of an organism within its ecosystem.

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22. Which one of the following factors is most important for the establishment of the cotton textile industry?

(A) Nearness to market
(B) Transport network
(C) Nearness to raw material
(D) Nearness to water resource

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Nearness to raw material

Explanation: Cotton textile industries are generally located near cotton-growing regions to reduce transportation costs and ensure a steady supply of raw materials.

23. Population migration is primarily determined by—

(A) Historical events
(B) Push and pull factors
(C) Political decision
(D) Religious factor

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Push and pull factors

Explanation: Migration occurs due to push factors (e.g., unemployment, conflicts, natural disasters) and pull factors (e.g., better job opportunities, education, security).

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24. The Crop Combination Method was developed by—

(A) Weber
(B) Wegener
(C) Whittlesey
(D) Weaver

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Weaver

Explanation: The Crop Combination Method was developed by J. C. Weaver in 1954 to identify dominant crop combinations in a region.

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25. Soils that are mainly influenced by major climatic characteristics are known as—

(A) Intrazonal soils
(B) Zonal soils
(C) Interzonal soils
(D) Azonal soils

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Zonal soils

Explanation: Zonal soils develop under the influence of climate and natural vegetation and exhibit well-developed soil profiles.

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26. Which one of the following greenhouse gases is not associated with global warming?

(A) Water vapour
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Hydrogen

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Hydrogen

Explanation: Hydrogen is not considered a primary greenhouse gas, whereas water vapour, carbon dioxide, and methane significantly contribute to the greenhouse effect.

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27. Which of the following regions has a core area and a periphery?

(A) Formal region
(B) Perceptual region
(C) Functional region
(D) Vernacular region

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Functional region

Explanation: A functional (nodal) region is organized around a central node or core and includes surrounding peripheral areas linked to it.

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28. Which is the oldest and richest coalfield of India in terms of both production and quality?

(A) Raniganj
(B) Bokaro
(C) Jharia
(D) Makum-Nazira

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Jharia

Explanation: The Jharia Coalfield in Jharkhand is renowned for producing high-quality coking coal and is one of India's richest coalfields.

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29. An agricultural region is generally classified as a—

(A) Functional region
(B) Nodal region
(C) Homogeneous region
(D) Natural region

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Homogeneous region

Explanation: Agricultural regions are considered homogeneous regions because they exhibit similar agricultural characteristics throughout the area.

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30. Which of the following metropolitan cities recorded the largest population in the 2011 Census?

(A) Chennai
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kolkata

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Mumbai

Explanation: According to the 2011 Census, Mumbai Urban Agglomeration had the highest population among Indian metropolitan cities.

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31. The habitat of the Onge tribe is—

(A) Aravalli Range
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation: The Onge are one of the indigenous tribes inhabiting the Little Andaman Island in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.

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32. Which of the following states has the highest percentage of its agricultural area under canal irrigation?

(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Uttar Pradesh

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation: Due to its topography and river systems, Jammu and Kashmir has a very high proportion of irrigated land served by canals.

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33. Which state of India is the largest producer of wheat?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Haryana

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of wheat in India owing to its vast fertile plains and favourable climatic conditions.

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34. The oldest religion of the Middle East is—

(A) Hinduism
(B) Judaism
(C) Christianity
(D) Zoroastrianism

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Zoroastrianism

Explanation: Zoroastrianism, founded by Zarathustra (Zoroaster) in ancient Persia, is considered one of the oldest organized religions of the Middle East.

35. Which one of the following states recorded the lowest population density in India according to the 2011 Census?

(A) Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Mizoram

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: According to the 2011 Census, Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density among Indian states, with 17 persons per sq. km.

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36. Primitive subsistence agriculture in North-East India is known as—

(A) Jhum
(B) Milpa
(C) Ray
(D) Podu

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Jhum

Explanation: Jhum cultivation or shifting cultivation is widely practised in the North-Eastern states of India.

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37. Which of the following states is the highest producer of cotton in India?

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Madhya Pradesh

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Gujarat

Explanation: Gujarat is the leading producer of cotton in India due to its favourable black soil and climate.

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38. Which of the following factors is not very important for the cotton textile industry?

(A) Coal
(B) Electricity
(C) Labour
(D) Raw material

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Coal

Explanation: Cotton textile industries require raw materials, labour, electricity, and market facilities, whereas coal is comparatively less important.

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39. Which of the following steel plants is owned by Tata Steel?

(A) Jharia
(B) Bokaro
(C) Bhilai
(D) Rourkela

✅ Correct Answer: None of the above

Explanation: Tata Steel owns the Jamshedpur Steel Plant.

• Bokaro Steel Plant – SAIL
• Bhilai Steel Plant – SAIL
• Rourkela Steel Plant – SAIL
• Jharia is a coalfield, not a steel plant.

⚠️ The question appears to have a printing error as "Jamshedpur" is missing from the options.

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40. The state having the highest density of roads in India is—

(A) Goa
(B) Assam
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Goa

Explanation: Goa has one of the highest road densities in India because of its small area and well-developed transport infrastructure.

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41. Which one of the following is a non-renewable resource?

(A) Forest
(B) Water
(C) Coal
(D) Wind

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Coal

Explanation: Coal is a fossil fuel that takes millions of years to form and cannot be replenished within a human timescale.

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42. The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at—

(A) Hyderabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Bangalore
(D) Ahmedabad

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Hyderabad

Explanation: The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), under Indian Space Research Organisation, is headquartered in Hyderabad.

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43. Which one of the following is not an important aspect of industrial location?

(A) Labour
(B) Market
(C) Capital
(D) Raw material

✅ Correct Answer: Tricky Question

Explanation: All four factors—labour, market, capital, and raw material—are important determinants of industrial location. Therefore, the question is ambiguous. In some examinations, capital is considered relatively less location-specific and may be treated as the answer.

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44. Which one of the following products is not manufactured in the Assam Valley industrial region?

(A) Paper
(B) Plywood
(C) Cotton
(D) Jute

✅ Correct Answer: (D) Jute

Explanation: The Assam Valley industrial region is known for paper, plywood, tea processing, petroleum refining, and cotton textiles. Jute manufacturing is not a major industry of this region.

📚 Important for TGT / PGT / NET / SET / PSC / UPSC Geography Examinations

45. Which of the following states has the highest railway density (per 1000 sq. km area) in India?

(A) Delhi
(B) Punjab
(C) Bihar
(D) West Bengal

✅ Correct Answer: (D) West Bengal

Explanation: West Bengal has one of the highest railway densities in India due to its dense population, industrial development, and historical importance in railway expansion.

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46. India's satellite launching station is located at—

(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Sriharikota
(D) Chennai

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Sriharikota

Explanation: India's principal space launch centre, the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, is located at Sriharikota.

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47. Which one of the following satellites does not belong to India?

(A) GSAT
(B) INSAT
(C) IKONOS
(D) EDUSAT

✅ Correct Answer: (C) IKONOS

Explanation: IKONOS was a commercial Earth observation satellite launched by the American company GeoEye. GSAT, INSAT, and EDUSAT are Indian satellites.

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48. Which of the following satellites is dedicated to weather forecasting and monitoring?

(A) IRS-2C
(B) GSAT-3
(C) Kalpana-2
(D) Cartosat-2

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Kalpana-2

Explanation: Kalpana-2 is a meteorological satellite designed for weather observation, cyclone tracking, and forecasting.

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49. The Planning Commission of India was established in the year—

(A) 1960
(B) 1950
(C) 1952
(D) 1965

✅ Correct Answer: (B) 1950

Explanation: The Planning Commission of India was established on 15 March 1950 to formulate India's Five-Year Plans.

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50. Following the Green Revolution, Operation Flood became an important rural development programme. In which year was Operation Flood introduced?

(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1970
(D) 1980

✅ Correct Answer: (C) 1970

Explanation: Operation Flood was launched in 1970 under the leadership of Verghese Kurien. It is also known as the White Revolution and transformed India into one of the world's largest milk producers.