BPSC TRE 1.0 SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER WITH SOLUTIONS( 9 and 10)

HISTORY

H-1. Which major city of the Indus Valley Civilization is known to have had trade relations with West Asia?

(A) Ropar
(B) Sanghol
(C) Kalibangan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The major Indus Valley cities that had extensive trade relations with West Asia (Mesopotamia) were Lothal, Harappa, and Mohenjo-daro. Among the given options, none is the correct answer. Lothal was especially famous for its dockyard and overseas trade.

H-2. Of which metal was the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro made?

(A) Copper
(B) Brass
(C) Bronze
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Bronze

Explanation:
The Dancing Girl is a bronze statue about 10.5 cm high, created using the lost-wax casting technique. It is one of the finest examples of Harappan metallurgy.

H-3. Which animal worship has been found in the Indus Valley Civilization?

(A) Humped Bull
(B) Horse
(C) Cow
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Humped Bull

Explanation:
Numerous seals depict the humped (zebu) bull, indicating its religious and cultural importance. Evidence of horse worship is absent, and there is no clear evidence of cow worship during the Harappan period.

H-4. How many Suktas (Hymns) are there in the Rigveda?

(A) 1020
(B) 1017
(C) 1080
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) 1020

Explanation:
The Rigveda consists of 10 Mandalas, 1,028 hymns (Suktas), and about 10,600 mantras. Since 1028 is not listed among the options, 1020 is incorrect. Therefore, based on the options provided, the correct answer should actually be:

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Exam Note: The Rigveda contains 1,028 Suktas, not 1,020.

H-5. Who wrote Kiratarjuniya?

(A) Bhatti
(B) Shudraka
(C) Kalidasa
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
Kiratarjuniya was written by Bharavi. Since Bharavi is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

Remember:

Bharavi → Kiratarjuniya
Kalidasa → Abhijnanasakuntalam, Meghaduta, Raghuvamsha
Shudraka → Mrichchhakatika
Bhatti → Bhattikavya

H-6. What does the term "Pur" mean in the Vedic period?

(A) Forts
(B) Trade
(C) Market
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Forts

Explanation:
In the Rigvedic period, the word "Pur" referred to fortified settlements or forts. Many hymns mention the destruction of enemy forts by the deity Indra, who was called Purandara ("Destroyer of Forts").

H-7. What was the term 'Takshan' used for in the Rigvedic period?

(A) Carpenter
(B) Ironsmith
(C) Potter
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Carpenter

Explanation:
In the Rigveda, the term Takshan refers to a carpenter or wood craftsman. Carpenters played an important role in making chariots, carts, houses, and agricultural implements.

Exam Fact:
Takshan = Carpenter
Karmara = Blacksmith/Metal worker
Kulala = Potter

H-8. Of which metal were the Kakani coins of the Mauryan period made?

(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Silver
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Copper

Explanation:
The Kakani was a small copper coin used during the Mauryan Empire. Higher denomination coins like the Karshapana (Pana) were generally made of silver.

H-9. By whom was the world's first republic established in Vaishali?

(A) Maurya
(B) Nanda
(C) Gupta
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
Vaishali was the capital of the Licchavi (Lichchhavi) Republic, one of the earliest known republics in the world. Since Licchavis are not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

H-10. Into how many major books (Adhikaranas) is Kautilya's Arthashastra divided?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
Kautilya's Arthashastra is divided into 15 books (Adhikaranas), about 150 chapters, and around 180 topics.

Exam Fact:
Arthashastra = 15 Books

H-11. Whom did Iltutmish appoint as the first Governor of Bihar?

(A) Aivaz
(B) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(C) Ali Mardan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Aivaz

Explanation:
After consolidating his rule, Iltutmish appointed Aivaz (Iwaz Khalji) as the Governor of Bihar. He later became an important ruler in Bengal.

H-12. Which region was the main area of Birsa Munda's movement?

(A) Champaran
(B) Ranchi
(C) Ballia
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Ranchi

Explanation:
The Birsa Munda Movement (Ulgulan) was centred in the Ranchi region of present-day Jharkhand. Birsa Munda led a tribal uprising against British rule and exploitative landlords between 1895 and 1900.

Exam Fact:
Birsa Munda = Ulgulan (The Great Tumult)
Main Region = Ranchi & Chotanagpur Plateau

H-13. Who was the leader of the Revolt of 1857 from Bihar?

(A) Maulvi Ahmadullah
(B) Tantia Topi
(C) Nana Sahib
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The leader of the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar was Kunwar Singh, the zamindar of Jagdishpur (Bhojpur). Since his name is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

Exam Facts:

Bihar → Kunwar Singh

Kanpur → Nana Sahib

Lucknow/Faizabad → Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

Gwalior/Central India → Tantia Topi

H-14. What was the first capital of Magadha?

(A) Pataliputra
(B) Vaishali
(C) Girivraja (Rajagriha)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Girivraja (Rajagriha)

Explanation:
The first capital of Magadha was Girivraja (Rajagriha/Rajgir). Later, during the reign of Udayin, the capital was shifted to Pataliputra.

H-15. Which of the following source gives information about the administration of Pataliputra?

(A) Divyavadana
(B) Arthashastra
(C) Indica
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Information about the administration of Pataliputra is available from multiple sources:

Indica (by Megasthenes) describes the city's administration.
Arthashastra explains the Mauryan administrative system.
Divyavadana also contains references to Mauryan administration.

Therefore, more than one option is correct.

H-16. In Mughal administration, 'Madad-i-Maash' referred to

(A) Octroi tax
(B) Revenue-free land granted to scholars and religious persons
(C) Pension to military officers
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Revenue-free land granted to scholars and religious persons

Explanation:
Madad-i-Maash means tax-free or revenue-free land grants given by Mughal rulers to scholars, saints, religious leaders, and learned persons for their maintenance.

H-17. What was the objective of the Poona Pact (1932)?

(A) Hindu-Muslim unity
(B) Representation of the Dalit (Depressed) classes
(C) Special rights to kings
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Representation of the Dalit class

Explanation:
The Poona Pact (1932) was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. It replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes) in provincial legislatures.

Exam Fact:
Poona Pact = 24 September 1932

H-18. Who constructed the Jantar Mantar observatories?

(A) Akbar
(B) Shah Jahan
(C) Shivaji
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The Jantar Mantar observatories were constructed by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II of Jaipur during the early 18th century. Since his name is not listed, the correct answer is None of the above.

Exam Fact:
Major Jantar Mantars are located in Jaipur, Delhi, Ujjain, Varanasi, and Mathura (the Mathura observatory no longer survives).

H-19. Who wrote "Vande Mataram"?

(A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Explanation:
"Vande Mataram" was composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anandamath (1882). The song became a symbol of India's freedom movement.

Exam Facts:

Written in Sanskritized Bengali

First sung at the 1896 Indian National Congress Session by Rabindranath Tagore

Declared the National Song of India in 1950

H-20. Christopher Columbus, who discovered America in 1492, was financed by which country?

(A) Portugal
(B) England
(C) Spain
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Spain

Explanation:
Christopher Columbus's voyage was sponsored by King Ferdinand II and Queen Isabella I of Spain. He reached the Americas on 12 October 1492 while searching for a sea route to Asia.

H-21. The Boston Tea Party is associated with the

(A) American War of Independence
(B) French Revolution
(C) Russian Revolution
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) American War of Independence

Explanation:
The Boston Tea Party (1773) was a protest by American colonists against British taxation, especially the Tea Act. It became a major event leading to the American War of Independence (1775–1783).

H-22. Why is 4th July 1776 considered important in the history of the USA?

(A) George Washington was elected President
(B) Abolition of Slavery
(C) Declaration of American Independence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Declaration of American Independence

Explanation:
On 4 July 1776, the Declaration of Independence was adopted by the Second Continental Congress, declaring the 13 American colonies independent from Britain.

Exam Fact:
Thomas Jefferson was the principal author of the Declaration of Independence.

H-23. Who was the ruler of France at the time of the French Revolution?

(A) Louis XVI
(B) Louis XIV
(C) Louis XIII
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Louis XVI

Explanation:
The French Revolution (1789) took place during the reign of King Louis XVI. He and Queen Marie Antoinette were executed during the Revolution.

Exam Fact:
French Revolution began: 14 July 1789 with the Storming of the Bastille.

H-24. During the Industrial Revolution, the cotton textile industry was revolutionized by the Spinning Jenny, invented by

(A) John Kay
(B) Samuel Crompton
(C) James Hargreaves
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) James Hargreaves

Explanation:
The Spinning Jenny was invented by James Hargreaves in 1764. It enabled a single worker to spin multiple spools of thread simultaneously, greatly increasing textile production.

Exam Facts:

Flying Shuttle → John Kay (1733)

Spinning Jenny → James Hargreaves (1764)

Water Frame → Richard Arkwright (1769)

Spinning Mule → Samuel Crompton (1779)

Power Loom → Edmund Cartwright (1785)

H-25. The Young Italy Movement (1831), which aimed to establish a republic, was started by

(A) Count Cavour
(B) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(C) Victor Emmanuel II
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The Young Italy Movement was founded in 1831 by Giuseppe Mazzini to unite Italy and establish a democratic republic. Since Mazzini is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

Exam Facts:

Giuseppe Mazzini → Young Italy (1831)

Count Cavour → Prime Minister of Piedmont-Sardinia

Garibaldi → Military leader ("Hero of Two Worlds")

Victor Emmanuel II → First King of unified Italy

H-26. The architect of the Unification of Germany, who believed in the policy of "Blood and Iron", was

(A) Talleyrand
(B) Otto von Bismarck
(C) Metternich
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Otto von Bismarck

Explanation:
Otto von Bismarck, the Prime Minister of Prussia, unified Germany through his policy of "Blood and Iron", emphasizing military strength and practical politics (Realpolitik).

Exam Fact:
German Unification completed: 1871

H-27. The United States entered the Second World War mainly because of

(A) Germany's invasion of Poland
(B) The Battle of Stalingrad
(C) German occupation of Sudetenland
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The United States entered World War II after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor on 7 December 1941, leading to a declaration of war on 8 December 1941. None of the listed options is correct.

Exam Fact:
Pearl Harbor → Immediate cause of U.S. entry into WWII.

H-28. Who was the ruler of China when Marco Polo visited?

(A) Genghis Khan
(B) Kublai Khan
(C) Hulagu Khan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Kublai Khan

Explanation:
Marco Polo visited China during the reign of Kublai Khan, the founder of the Yuan Dynasty, and served in his court for several years.

H-29. Which was the first permanent English settlement in the USA?

(A) Jamestown
(B) Charles Town
(C) Boston
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Jamestown

Explanation:
Jamestown, established in 1607 in Virginia, was the first permanent English settlement in North America.

Exam Facts:

Jamestown → 1607

Plymouth → 1620 (Pilgrims)

H-30. The Tennis Court Oath is associated with the

(A) American Revolution
(B) Russian Revolution
(C) French Revolution
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) French Revolution

Explanation:
The Tennis Court Oath was taken on 20 June 1789 by members of the Third Estate, who pledged not to separate until France had a constitution.

Exam Fact:
It marked the beginning of the French Revolution.

H-31. The Treaty of Sèvres (1920) was signed between the Allied Powers and

(A) Germany
(B) Turkey (Ottoman Empire)
(C) Hungary
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Turkey

Explanation:
The Treaty of Sèvres (1920) was imposed on the Ottoman Empire (Turkey) after World War I. It was later replaced by the Treaty of Lausanne (1923).

H-32. Who invented the Flying Shuttle in 1733?

(A) James Hargreaves
(B) John Kay
(C) Edmund Cartwright
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) John Kay

Explanation:
The Flying Shuttle, invented by John Kay in 1733, greatly increased the speed of weaving and was one of the earliest inventions of the Industrial Revolution.

Exam Facts:

Flying Shuttle (1733) → John Kay

Spinning Jenny (1764) → James Hargreaves

Water Frame (1769) → Richard Arkwright

Spinning Mule (1779) → Samuel Crompton

Power Loom (1785) → Edmund Cartwright

H-33. By which treaty was the Thirty Years' War (1618–1648) ended?

(A) Treaty of Augsburg
(B) Treaty of Westphalia
(C) Treaty of Trianon
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Treaty of Westphalia

Explanation:
The Treaty (Peace) of Westphalia (1648) ended the Thirty Years' War in Europe. It established the principle of state sovereignty and is considered the foundation of the modern international state system.

Exam Facts:

Treaty of Westphalia → 1648 → End of Thirty Years' War

Treaty of Augsburg → 1555

Treaty of Trianon → 1920 (Hungary after WWI)

H-34. Who represented Italy at the Paris Peace Conference (1919)?

(A) Lloyd George
(B) Orlando
(C) Georges Clemenceau
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Orlando

Explanation:
Italy was represented by Vittorio Emanuele Orlando, one of the "Big Four" leaders at the Paris Peace Conference.

The Big Four (1919):

USA → Woodrow Wilson

Britain → David Lloyd George

France → Georges Clemenceau

Italy → Vittorio Emanuele Orlando

H-35. Who chartered (hired) the Komagata Maru ship to sail to Vancouver?

(A) Harnam Singh
(B) Gurmeet Singh
(C) Kartar Singh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The Komagata Maru ship was chartered in 1914 by Baba Gurdit Singh, a Sikh businessman, to challenge Canada's discriminatory immigration laws. Since his name is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

H-36. Which one of the following was not associated with the foundation of the Shore Committee?

(A) Hussain Rahim
(B) Balwant Singh
(C) Bhagwan Singh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Bhagwan Singh

Explanation:
The Shore Committee in Vancouver was formed to support the passengers of the Komagata Maru. It included leaders such as:

Hussain Rahim
Balwant Singh
Sohan Lal Pathak

Bhagwan Singh was associated with the Ghadar Movement, but not with the foundation of the Shore Committee.

H-37. Which incident did Mahatma Gandhi describe as a "Himalayan Blunder"?

(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) Chauri Chaura Incident
(C) Execution of Bhagat Singh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi described his decision to launch the Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) without adequately preparing the people as a "Himalayan Blunder."

The Chauri Chaura Incident led him to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement, but he did not refer to that incident itself as the "Himalayan Blunder."

H-38. Which woman revolutionary died while leading an attack on the Pahartali European Club near Chittagong?

(A) Pritilata Waddedar
(B) Kalpana Datta
(C) Santi Ghosh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Pritilata Waddedar

Explanation:
Pritilata Waddedar led the attack on the Pahartali European Club in 1932 as part of the Chittagong revolutionary movement. To avoid arrest, she consumed cyanide and died.

Exam Note:
The Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930) was led by Surya Sen, while Pritilata died during the later attack on the Pahartali European Club.

H-39. Which of the following revolutionaries was not associated with the Kakori Train Conspiracy (1925)?

(A) Ashfaqulla Khan
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil
(C) Prafulla Chaki
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Prafulla Chaki

Explanation:
Prafulla Chaki was associated with the Muzaffarpur Bomb Case (1908) along with Khudiram Bose, not with the Kakori Train Conspiracy (1925).

Kakori Case leaders included:

Ram Prasad Bismil
Ashfaqulla Khan
Rajendra Lahiri
Roshan Singh
Chandrashekhar Azad (escaped)

H-40. In which language was the first issue of the Ghadar newspaper published on 1 November 1913?

(A) Gurmukhi
(B) Urdu
(C) Hindi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Urdu

Explanation:
The first issue of the Ghadar newspaper was published in Urdu on 1 November 1913 from San Francisco. A Gurmukhi (Punjabi) edition was published shortly afterward.

Exam Facts:

First issue → Urdu

Later editions → Gurmukhi, Hindi, Gujarati, and other languages

Published by the Ghadar Party from the Yugantar Ashram, San Francisco

GEOGRAPHY

G-1. Which of the following is a Vulnerable species in India according to the IUCN Red List?

(A) Asiatic Elephant
(B) Gangetic Dolphin
(C) Blackbuck
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
According to the IUCN Red List:

Asiatic Elephant – Endangered (EN) ❌

Gangetic River Dolphin – Endangered (EN) ❌

Blackbuck – Least Concern (LC) ❌

Note: Based on the latest IUCN classifications, none of these species is Vulnerable. However, many older exam keys considered the Gangetic Dolphin as Vulnerable. Therefore, the scientifically correct answer today is (E) None of the above, but if the question follows an older syllabus or outdated classification, it may expect (B).

Current Exam Fact (Latest IUCN):

Asiatic Elephant → Endangered

Gangetic River Dolphin → Endangered

Blackbuck → Least Concern

G-2. The major factor responsible for the depletion of forest resources in India is

(A) Expansion of agriculture
(B) Railways
(C) Scientific forestry
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Expansion of agriculture

Explanation:
The largest cause of deforestation in India has been the expansion of agriculture to meet the food requirements of a growing population.

Exam Facts:
Other causes include:

Urbanization

Mining

Industrialization

Infrastructure development

G-3. Which movement promotes the development of ecological farming using traditional agricultural methods?

(A) Beej Bachao Andolan
(B) Navdanya
(C) Tawa Matsya Sangh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Both Beej Bachao Andolan and Navdanya promote:

Conservation of indigenous seeds

Organic farming

Biodiversity

Traditional ecological farming practices

Therefore, more than one option is correct.

G-4. The Sardar Sarovar Dam project benefits which of the following states?

(A) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Goa
(C) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Punjab
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:
The Sardar Sarovar Project is built on the Narmada River and provides irrigation, drinking water, and electricity to:

Gujarat

Rajasthan

Maharashtra

Madhya Pradesh

G-5. Most river valley projects built to control floods have instead aggravated flooding mainly because of

(A) Excessive sedimentation in reservoirs
(B) Heavy rainfall leading to sudden release of water from dams
(C) Extensive soil erosion due to floods
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Flood control projects sometimes fail because:

Sedimentation reduces reservoir capacity.

Sudden release of excess water during heavy rainfall causes downstream flooding.

Both (A) and (B) are correct.

G-6. Which was the first state in India to make rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory through legal provisions?

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Meghalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation:
Tamil Nadu became the first Indian state to make rooftop rainwater harvesting mandatory in 2003. The initiative significantly improved groundwater levels across the state.

Exam Fact:
Tamil Nadu = First State to make Rainwater Harvesting compulsory (2003).

G-7. As per the Agriculture Report, 2017, India was the second-largest producer of which of the following in the world?

(A) Rice
(B) Cotton
(C) Sugarcane
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
According to the Agriculture Report (2017):

Rice – India was the 2nd largest producer (after China).

Cotton – India was among the largest producers globally.

Sugarcane – India was the 2nd largest producer (after Brazil).

Since more than one option satisfies the condition, the correct answer is (D).

Exam Facts (2017):

Rice → 2nd

Sugarcane → 2nd

Cotton → One of the world's leading producers (often 1st or 2nd depending on the year)

G-8. Which of the following is an institutional reform introduced for the benefit of farmers?

(A) Land Reforms
(B) Creation of Grameen Banks
(C) Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Several institutional reforms have been introduced to improve the condition of farmers, including:

Land Reforms

Grameen Banks for rural credit

Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme (1998) for easy agricultural loans

Therefore, more than one option is correct.

G-9. Koderma in Jharkhand is famous for the production of which mineral?

(A) Bauxite
(B) Mica
(C) Iron Ore
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Mica

Explanation:
Koderma in Jharkhand is popularly known as the "Mica Capital of India" because of its rich deposits of high-quality mica.

Exam Fact:
Koderma = Mica Capital of India

G-10. Which is the only industry in India that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain?

(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Textile Industry
(C) Sugar Industry
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Textile Industry

Explanation:
The textile industry is considered self-reliant and complete in its value chain, covering all stages from:

Fibre production

Spinning

Weaving/Knitting

Dyeing and Processing

Garment Manufacturing

Marketing and Export

It is one of India's largest employment-generating industries after agriculture.

G-11. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Peas
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Maize

Explanation:
Maize is a Kharif crop, sown with the onset of the southwest monsoon (June–July) and harvested in September–October.

Exam Facts:

Kharif: Rice, Maize, Cotton, Jute, Soybean

Rabi: Wheat, Barley, Gram, Mustard, Peas

G-12. Which crop takes almost one year to grow?

(A) Barley
(B) Jute
(C) Cotton
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Cotton

Explanation:
Cotton is a long-duration crop that generally requires 6–8 months, and in some varieties and regions, it can take up to 10–12 months, making it one of the longest-duration field crops.

Exam Facts:

Cotton → Long-duration crop

Barley → About 4–5 months

Jute → About 4–5 months

G-13. The National Highways in India are primarily developed and maintained by

(A) Central Public Works Department (CPWD)
(B) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
(C) Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)

Explanation:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is responsible for the development, maintenance, and management of most National Highways in India under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Exam Facts:

NHAI → National Highways

BRO → Roads in border and strategic areas

CPWD → Government buildings and public infrastructure

G-21. Which of the following thermal power plants is located in Bihar?

(A) Neyveli
(B) Talcher
(C) Barauni
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Barauni

Explanation:
The Barauni Thermal Power Station is located in Begusarai district, Bihar.

Neyveli → Tamil Nadu

Talcher → Odisha

Barauni → Bihar

Exam Fact:
Barauni Thermal Power Station = Bihar

G-22. Which organization is a major power-producing corporation in India and has ISO 14001 Environmental Management System Certification?

(A) NTPC
(B) HAIL (Incorrect name; likely intended GAIL)
(C) NHPC
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) NTPC

Explanation:
NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation) is India's largest power generation company. It has obtained ISO 14001 certification for its Environmental Management System at many of its power stations.

Exam Facts:

NTPC = Largest thermal power producer in India.

NHPC = Major hydropower company.

GAIL = Natural gas company, not a power-generating corporation.

G-23. The Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway connects which four major metropolitan cities?

(A) Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai
(B) Srinagar – Jaipur – Chennai – Kolkata
(C) Delhi – Ahmedabad – Bengaluru – Lucknow
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai

Explanation:
The Golden Quadrilateral is India's largest highway project, connecting the four major metropolitan cities:

Delhi

Kolkata

Chennai

Mumbai

It was launched under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP).

Exam Fact:
Length: Approximately 5,846 km

G-24. Which was the first major port developed in India after Independence?

(A) Mangalore
(B) Kandla
(C) Mumbai
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Kandla

Explanation:
Kandla Port (now Deendayal Port) in Gujarat was the first major port developed after Independence to compensate for the loss of Karachi Port after Partition.

Exam Fact:
Kandla Port established: 1950

G-25. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and _____ deposits.

(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Silicon
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Coal

Explanation:
These states possess vast coal reserves along with rich deposits of iron ore, bauxite, limestone, and other minerals.

Exam Facts:

Jharkhand → Jharia, Bokaro Coalfields

Chhattisgarh → Korba Coalfield

Madhya Pradesh → Singrauli Coalfield (shared with Uttar Pradesh)

G-26. Which country is the largest producer of rice in the world?

(A) India
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) China

Explanation:
China is the world's largest producer of rice, while India is generally the second-largest producer and one of the largest exporters of rice.

Exam Facts:

1st: China

2nd: India

Major Exporter: India

G-27. From which year was the National Forest Policy first introduced in India?

(A) 1952
(B) 1963
(C) 1978
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) 1952

Explanation:
India's first National Forest Policy after Independence was introduced in 1952. It emphasized increasing forest cover and meeting the country's requirements for timber and other forest products. It was later revised in 1988, with greater emphasis on environmental conservation and people's participation.

Exam Facts:

1894 – First Forest Policy (British India)

1952 – First National Forest Policy after Independence

1988 – Current National Forest Policy

G-28. Which mineral is the principal ore from which aluminium is extracted?

(A) Galena
(B) Cuprite
(C) Bauxite
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Bauxite

Explanation:
Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium. It is refined into alumina, which is then converted into aluminium through the Hall–Héroult electrolytic process.

Exam Facts:

Bauxite → Aluminium

Galena → Lead

Cuprite → Copper

G-29. The Gobi Desert is located in

(A) China
(B) Africa
(C) Southern Australia
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) China

Explanation:
The Gobi Desert extends across northern China and southern Mongolia. Since Mongolia is not listed in the options, China is the best answer.

Exam Fact:
Gobi Desert = China + Mongolia

G-30. The Seine River flows through which city?

(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Paris

Explanation:
The Seine River flows through Paris, the capital of France, and is one of the country's most important rivers.

Exam Facts:

Seine → Paris

Thames → London

Tiber → Rome

G-31. Which country is the largest producer of raw jute in the world?

(A) India
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Scotland
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) India

Explanation:
India is the largest producer of raw jute in the world, while Bangladesh is one of the largest exporters of raw jute and jute products.

Exam Facts:

Largest Producer: India

Major Exporter: Bangladesh

G-32. In which of the following states is iron ore not found in significant quantities?

(A) Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Bihar

Explanation:
Most of the major iron ore deposits of the undivided Bihar region became part of Jharkhand after the state's formation in 2000. Present-day Bihar has no significant iron ore deposits, whereas Odisha and Madhya Pradesh have substantial reserves.

Exam Fact:
Major iron ore producing states:

Odisha

Chhattisgarh

Karnataka

Jharkhand

Madhya Pradesh

G-33. Where is Dakshin (Southern) Gangotri located?

(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Antarctica
(C) Himalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Antarctica

Explanation:
Dakshin Gangotri was India's first Antarctic research station, established in 1983 in Antarctica. It has since been replaced by Maitri and Bharati as India's active Antarctic research stations.

Exam Facts:

Dakshin Gangotri → First Indian Antarctic Station (1983)

Maitri → Second Station (1989)

Bharati → Third Station (2012)

G-34. Which is the longest river in South America?

(A) Nile
(B) Amazon
(C) Mississippi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Amazon

Explanation:
The Amazon River is the longest river in South America and is widely regarded as the largest river in the world by discharge volume. Although there has been debate about whether it or the Nile is the world's longest, the Amazon is unquestionably the longest river in South America.

Exam Facts:

Amazon → South America

Nile → Africa

Mississippi → North America

G-35. Which state is the largest producer of wheat in India?

(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India because of its extensive fertile alluvial plains, favorable climate, and widespread irrigation.

Exam Facts:

1st: Uttar Pradesh

2nd: Madhya Pradesh (in recent years, production has increased significantly)

Other major producers: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan

G-36. The Rio Earth Summit (1992) adopted Agenda 21, which focuses on

(A) Environmental protection
(B) Global sustainable development
(C) Global peace
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Agenda 21 is a comprehensive action plan adopted at the Rio Earth Summit (1992). It promotes:

Environmental protection

Sustainable development

Conservation of natural resources

Poverty reduction and improved quality of life

Although global peace is not its primary objective, environmental protection and sustainable development are both key goals. Therefore, more than one option is correct.

G-37. Which country is the largest producer of coal in the world?

(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) China

Explanation:
China is the largest producer and consumer of coal in the world. It accounts for more than half of global coal production.

Exam Facts:

1st: China

2nd: India

3rd: Indonesia / USA (varies by year)

G-38. Which place is known as the oldest oil-producing field in India?

(A) Bombay High, Maharashtra
(B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(C) Naharkatiya, Assam (often misspelled in question banks as Navagaon)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
This question appears to contain an error in the options.

The oldest oil-producing region in India is Digboi, Assam, where oil was discovered in 1889. Since Digboi is not listed, the correct answer is None of the above.

Exam Facts:

Digboi (Assam) → Oldest oil field in India

Bombay High → Largest offshore oil field

Ankleshwar → Major oil field in Gujarat

G-39. Which country is the largest producer of aluminium in the world?

(A) France
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The largest producer of primary aluminium in the world is China. Since China is not among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

Exam Facts:

1st: China

India: Among the top producers, but not the largest.

G-40. The Great Victoria Desert is situated in

(A) Australia
(B) India
(C) Egypt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Australia

Explanation:
The Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Australia, extending across the states of Western Australia and South Australia.

Exam Facts:

Great Victoria Desert → Australia

Sahara Desert → Africa

Thar Desert → India & Pakistan

ECONOMICS

E-1. Which is the most important attribute used for comparing the level of development between countries?

(A) Land
(B) Population
(C) Income
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Income

Explanation:
Per capita income (average income) is the most commonly used indicator for comparing the economic development of countries because it reflects the average income earned per person.

Exam Fact:
Development is also measured using the Human Development Index (HDI), but income is the basic economic indicator.

E-2. The average income of a country is also known as

(A) Per capita income
(B) Personal income
(C) National income
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Per capita income

Explanation:
Per capita income is calculated by dividing the national income by the total population of the country.

Formula:
$\text{Per Capita Income} = \frac{\text{National Income}}{\text{Population}}$

Exam Fact:
Average Income = Per Capita Income

E-3. The Human Development Report (HDR) is published by

(A) UNDP
(B) UNESCO
(C) WWF
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) UNDP

Explanation:
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Report, which includes the Human Development Index (HDI) for countries around the world.

Exam Facts:

UNDP → Human Development Report

UNESCO → Education, Science & Culture

WWF → Wildlife and Environmental Conservation

E-4. The tertiary sector of the economy is also known as the

(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing Sector
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Service Sector

Explanation:
The tertiary sector provides services rather than producing goods. It supports both the primary and secondary sectors.

Examples include:

Banking

Education

Healthcare

Transport

Tourism

Communication

Information Technology

Exam Facts:

Primary Sector → Agriculture

Secondary Sector → Manufacturing

Tertiary Sector → Services

E-5. Under MGNREGA, 2005, how many days of guaranteed wage employment are provided in a financial year to every rural household?

(A) 200 Days
(B) 50 Days
(C) 100 Days
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) 100 Days

Explanation:
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

Exam Facts:

Enacted: 2005

Implemented: 2006

Guarantee: 100 days of employment

E-6. Approximately what percentage of deposits do banks generally keep as cash reserves?

(A) 25%
(B) 15%
(C) 30%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
According to standard NCERT Economics (used in many competitive exams), banks usually keep about 15% of deposits as cash to meet withdrawal demands. However, in reality, the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and changes from time to time. Therefore, the exact percentage is not fixed.

If the question is based on the NCERT Class 10 Economics textbook, the expected answer is:

✅ (B) 15%

Exam Note:

NCERT Answer: 15%

Current Banking Practice: Cash reserve percentage varies according to RBI's CRR policy

E-7. Which of the following best defines the term Globalization?

(A) Rapid economic integration among countries
(B) Integration of cultures
(C) Isolation among countries
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Globalization refers to the increasing integration and interdependence of countries through:

Economic activities (trade and investment)

Flow of technology

Movement of capital

Exchange of ideas and cultures

Therefore, both economic integration and cultural integration are features of globalization.

Exam Fact:
Globalization = Economic + Social + Cultural + Technological integration.

E-8. In which year did the Government of India enact the Consumer Protection Act (COPRA)?

(A) 1991
(B) 1992
(C) 1986
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) 1986

Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enacted in 1986 to protect consumers from unfair trade practices and to establish consumer dispute redressal agencies.

Exam Facts:

COPRA enacted: 1986

New Consumer Protection Act: 2019

E-9. National Consumer Day in India is observed on

(A) 24th December
(B) 21st November
(C) 23rd May
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) 24th December

Explanation:
National Consumer Day is celebrated every year on 24 December to commemorate the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Exam Fact:
World Consumer Rights Day → 15 March
National Consumer Day (India) → 24 December

E-10. Which consumer right protects consumers against unfair trade practices and exploitation?

(A) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(B) Right to Information
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Right against Exploitation

Explanation:
Consumers have the Right against Exploitation, which protects them from:

Unfair trade practices

Fraudulent advertisements

Sale of defective goods

Overcharging

Exploitative business practices

Exam Facts:
Consumer Rights include:

Right to Safety

Right to Information

Right to Choose

Right to be Heard

Right to Seek Redressal

Right to Consumer Education

E-11. Which Act empowers citizens to seek information from the government regarding its functioning?

(A) Right to Education (RTE) Act
(B) Information Technology (IT) Act
(C) Right to Information (RTI) Act
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C) Right to Information (RTI) Act

Explanation:
The Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) enables citizens to request information from public authorities, thereby promoting transparency and accountability in governance.

Exam Fact:
RTI Act enacted: 2005

E-12. Which multinational company acquired the Indian company Parakh Foods?

(A) Lactalis
(B) Cargill Foods
(C) MARS
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A) Lactalis

Explanation:
The French multinational dairy company Lactalis acquired Parakh Foods, strengthening its presence in India's dairy sector.

Exam Facts:

Lactalis → France

Brands in India include dairy products such as President and Prabhat.
ECONOMICS

E-1. The important attribute for comparing development between countries is:

(A) Land
(B) Population
(C) Income
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Income

Explanation:
Income is the most commonly used indicator for comparing the level of development among countries because it reflects people's purchasing power and standard of living. Generally, Per Capita Income is used instead of total income.

E-2. The average income is also known as:

(A) Per Capita Income
(B) Personal Income
(C) National Income
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Per Capita Income

Explanation:
Per Capita Income = Total National Income ÷ Total Population. It represents the average income earned per person in a country and is widely used to compare economic development.

E-3. 'Human Development Report' is published by which of the following organizations?

(A) UNDP
(B) UNESCO
(C) WWF
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) UNDP

Explanation:
The Human Development Report (HDR) is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). It introduces the Human Development Index (HDI), which measures development based on:

Health (Life Expectancy)

Education

Standard of Living (GNI per capita)

E-4. The 'tertiary sector' of an economy is also called as:

(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Service Sector
(C) Manufacturing Sector
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Service Sector

Explanation:
The tertiary sector provides services rather than producing goods. Examples include:

Banking

Transport

Education

Healthcare

Tourism

Insurance

Communication

E-5. Under MGNREGA 2005, how many days of employment in a year are guaranteed by the government for rural unemployed?

(A) 200 Days
(B) 50 Days
(C) 100 Days
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) 100 Days

Explanation:
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005 guarantees 100 days of wage employment every financial year to every rural household whose adult members are willing to do unskilled manual work.

E-6. What percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India?

(A) 25%
(B) 15%
(C) 30%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) 15% (As per the NCERT Class 10 Economics textbook context.)

Explanation:
According to the NCERT Class 10 Economics chapter Money and Credit, banks keep about 15% of deposits as cash to meet the daily withdrawal needs of depositors and lend the remaining amount to borrowers.

Note: In actual banking practice, the required cash reserve varies over time according to the Reserve Bank of India's regulations. However, for NCERT-based examinations, 15% is the expected answer.

E-7. Which among the following options defines the term 'globalization'?

(A) Rapid economic integration among countries
(B) Integration of cultures
(C) Isolation among countries
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Rapid economic integration among countries

Explanation:

Globalization refers to the process of rapid integration and interconnection of economies across the world through increased trade, investment, technology, and movement of goods and services. Although globalization also leads to cultural integration, the NCERT definition primarily emphasizes economic integration.

E-8. In which year did the Indian Government enact the Consumer Protection Act (COPRA)?

(A) 1991
(B) 1992
(C) 1986
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) 1986

Explanation:

The Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enacted by the Government of India in 1986 to protect consumers from unfair trade practices and to establish consumer dispute redressal agencies at the district, state, and national levels.

Note: The Act was later replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, but for NCERT and competitive examinations, 1986 is the correct answer.

E-9. National Consumer Day in India is observed on

(A) 24th December
(B) 21st November
(C) 23rd May
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) 24th December

Explanation:

National Consumer Day is observed every year on 24th December to commemorate the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Important Facts

National Consumer Day (India): 24 December

World Consumer Rights Day: 15 March

E-10. Which right does consumer have against unfair trade practices and exploitation?

(A) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(B) Right to Information
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Right to Information

Explanation:

Consumers have the Right to Information, which ensures that they receive complete and accurate information about the quality, quantity, purity, price, standard, and ingredients of goods and services. This right helps protect consumers from unfair trade practices and exploitation.

E-11. Which Act was passed to empower citizens to question the government about its functions?

(A) The RTE Act
(B) The IT Act
(C) The RTI Act
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) The RTI Act

Explanation:

The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, promoting transparency, accountability, and good governance.

E-12. Which MNC bought over the small Indian company 'Parakh Foods'?

(A) Lactalis
(B) Cargill Foods
(C) MARS
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Lactalis

Explanation:

Lactalis, a multinational dairy company headquartered in France, acquired the Indian dairy company Parakh Foods. This is cited as an example of how multinational corporations (MNCs) expand their business through acquisitions in the context of globalization.

E-13. Which of the following about MGNREGA Act is incorrect?

(A) Right to work in about 625 districts of India
(B) 100 days of guaranteed employment in a year
(C) It will not give an employment allowance if the government fails
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) It will not give an employment allowance if the government fails

Explanation:

Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, every rural household is entitled to 100 days of guaranteed wage employment. If the government fails to provide employment within 15 days of demand, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.

Therefore, option (C) is incorrect.

E-14. Which of the following countries has better human development performance according to data of 2016?

(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Sri Lanka

Explanation:

According to the Human Development Report (2016), Sri Lanka had a higher Human Development Index (HDI) than Bangladesh and Pakistan due to:

Higher life expectancy

Better literacy and education

Better healthcare indicators

E-15. _____ is the situation when both parties have to agree to sell and buy each other's commodities.

(A) Barter System
(B) Marketing
(C) Double Coincidence of Wants
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Double Coincidence of Wants

Explanation:

Double Coincidence of Wants means that in a barter system, each person must want what the other has to offer. This requirement made barter inconvenient and led to the development of money as a medium of exchange.

E-16. Which of the following does not come under the terms of credit?

(A) Interest Rate
(B) Collateral
(C) Deposit
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Deposit

Explanation:

The terms of credit generally include:

Interest rate

Collateral (security)

Documentation

Repayment period

Mode of repayment

A deposit is money placed in a bank by a customer and is not a term of credit.

E-17. Which of the following about RBI is incorrect?

(A) RBI can't supervise the informal sector
(B) RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the Government
(C) RBI accepts deposits from customers
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) RBI accepts deposits from customers

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

Regulates and supervises banks.

Issues currency notes on behalf of the Government of India.

Does not accept deposits from the general public like commercial banks.

Therefore, option (C) is incorrect.

E-18. The Indian Government took steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India by providing world-class facilities. What are these industrial zones called?

(A) SEZs (Special Economic Zones)
(B) IZs (Industrial Zones)
(C) PFZs (Provider Facility Zones)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) SEZs (Special Economic Zones)

Explanation:

Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are specially designated areas with:

World-class infrastructure

Tax incentives

Simplified regulations

Better transport and communication facilities

These measures encourage foreign direct investment (FDI), exports, and industrial growth.

E-19. GDP is the total value of _____ produced during a particular year.

(A) All goods and services
(B) All final goods and services
(C) All intermediate goods and services
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) All final goods and services

Explanation:

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country's domestic territory during a financial year. Intermediate goods are excluded to avoid double counting.

E-20. In India, the Black Revolution is related with

(A) Fisheries production
(B) Coal production
(C) Crude oil production
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Crude oil production

Explanation:

The Black Revolution refers to the increase in the production of petroleum (crude oil) and petroleum products.

Important Agricultural Revolutions:

Green Revolution – Food grains

White Revolution – Milk

Blue Revolution – Fisheries

Yellow Revolution – Oilseeds

Black Revolution – Petroleum/Crude oil

E-21. Which one is not a cash crop in India?

(A) Jute
(B) Peanut
(C) Barley
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Barley

Explanation:

Cash crops are cultivated mainly for sale in the market.

Examples:

Jute ✔

Groundnut (Peanut) ✔

Cotton ✔

Sugarcane ✔

Barley is primarily a food grain/cereal crop, not a cash crop.

E-22. What was the basis of the First Five-Year Plan in India?

(A) Harrod-Domar Model
(B) Mahalanobis Model
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji Model
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Harrod-Domar Model

Explanation:

The First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar Growth Model, emphasizing:

Agriculture

Irrigation

Community Development

Economic growth through investment

The Second Five-Year Plan was based on the Mahalanobis Model.

E-23. The Committee of R. N. Malhotra is related with

(A) Sick industry
(B) Tax reform
(C) Insurance sector
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Insurance Sector

Explanation:

The R. N. Malhotra Committee (1993) recommended reforms in the insurance sector, including:

Opening the insurance industry to private companies.

Establishing an independent regulator (IRDAI).

E-24. Which officer is responsible for controlling the government spending?

(A) RBI
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Finance Ministry

Explanation:

The Ministry of Finance is responsible for:

Preparing the Union Budget

Managing government expenditure

Mobilizing revenue

Controlling fiscal policy

The RBI manages monetary policy, not government expenditure.

E-25. The maximum foreign currencies are gained by India in export of

(A) Iron
(B) Tea
(C) Cotton
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Tea

Explanation:

In the context of many traditional competitive examination questions, Tea is considered one of India's major agricultural export commodities that earns significant foreign exchange.

Exam Note: This question reflects older GK/exam conventions. In the modern Indian economy, major foreign exchange earnings come from a much wider range of exports (such as petroleum products, engineering goods, pharmaceuticals, gems and jewellery, and IT services).

E-26. Which one is not included in the 'National Food Security Mission'?

(A) Oilseeds
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Oilseeds

Explanation:

The National Food Security Mission (NFSM), launched in 2007–08, initially focused on increasing the production of:

Rice

Wheat

Pulses

Oilseeds were not part of the original NFSM and were covered under separate schemes.

E-27. When was NITI Aayog started?

(A) 1st January, 2014
(B) 1st June, 2014
(C) 1st January, 2015
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 1st January, 2015

Explanation:

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It serves as the Government of India's premier public policy think tank.

E-28. What is the name of the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of India?

(A) Tandav
(B) Trinetra
(C) Saksham
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

India's first indigenous anti-radiation missile is the Rudram-1, developed by DRDO.
Since Rudram-1 is not among the given options, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

E-29. India's thirteenth major port is going to be established in

(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Kerala

Explanation:

The Vizhinjam International Seaport in Kerala has been referred to as India's 13th major port in many competitive examination sources.

E-30. In India, in which year was the Rail Budget merged with the General Budget?

(A) 2015
(B) 2016
(C) 2017
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 2017

Explanation:

The Railway Budget was merged with the Union Budget from the financial year 2017–18. The separate Railway Budget, which had existed since 1924, was abolished.

E-31. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Yojana was started on

(A) 1st November, 2017
(B) 1st January, 2018
(C) 1st February, 2019
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 1st February, 2019

Explanation:

The PM-KISAN Scheme was announced in the Interim Budget on 1 February 2019 and provides ₹6,000 per year in financial assistance to eligible farmer families in three equal installments.

E-32. By which institution is the poverty line determined?

(A) NSSO
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) RBI
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) NITI Aayog

Explanation:

After the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015, poverty-related policy functions shifted to NITI Aayog. In older exam contexts, the Planning Commission was the expected answer, but among the given options, NITI Aayog is correct.

E-33. The Pink Revolution is related with

(A) Onion production
(B) Fertilizer production
(C) Egg production
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Pink Revolution is generally associated with meat production and the processing of poultry and shrimp, depending on the source.
Since none of the options correctly state this, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

Exam Note: Some older general knowledge books incorrectly associate the Pink Revolution with onions or prawns. Current standard references associate it with the meat and poultry processing sector.

E-34. 'Robinhood effect' is related with

(A) Income and Consumption
(B) Income Generation
(C) Income Redistribution
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) Income Redistribution

Explanation:

The Robin Hood Effect refers to the redistribution of income or wealth from the richer section of society to the poorer section through measures such as progressive taxation and welfare schemes, thereby reducing income inequality.

E-35. In which economic programme does the dairy industry stand?

(A) Tertiary Sector
(B) Primary Sector
(C) Intermediate Sector
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Primary Sector

Explanation:

The dairy industry is associated with animal husbandry, which is an agricultural activity. Agriculture, forestry, fishing, and animal husbandry together form the Primary Sector because they involve the extraction or production of natural resources.

E-36. From which country were the Five-Year Plans adopted in India?

(A) Russia (Former Soviet Union/USSR)
(B) England
(C) USA
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Russia

Explanation:

India adopted the concept of Five-Year Plans from the former Soviet Union (USSR/Russia). The First Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951 under the guidance of the Planning Commission.

E-37. Import-export tax on goods is known as

(A) Customs Duty
(B) Product Duty
(C) VAT
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Customs Duty

Explanation:

Customs Duty is the tax imposed by the government on imports and exports of goods. It serves two main purposes:

Generates government revenue.

Protects domestic industries by regulating foreign trade.

E-38. In India, mixed economy was adopted in which Five-Year Plan?

(A) Fourth Five-Year Plan
(B) Second Five-Year Plan
(C) Third Five-Year Plan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

India adopted a Mixed Economy from the very beginning of economic planning, i.e., with the First Five-Year Plan (1951–56). Since the First Five-Year Plan is not listed among the options, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

Exam Tip: A mixed economy combines both the public sector and the private sector.

E-39. 'Open Market Operation' is related with which policy?

(A) Credit Policy
(B) Tariff Policy
(C) Commercial Policy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Credit Policy

Explanation:

Open Market Operations (OMO) are conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the money supply by buying or selling government securities. OMO is an important instrument of Monetary (Credit) Policy.

E-40. In India, in which year did the nationalization of major banks take place?

(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1969
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 1969

Explanation:

On 19 July 1969, the Government of India nationalized 14 major commercial banks under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to expand banking services and promote economic development. Later, 6 more banks were nationalized in 1980.
POLITY

P-1. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was borrowed from which country?

(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) England
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Preamble of the Constitution of India was inspired by the Preamble of the Constitution of the United States of America (USA). Since the USA is not among the given options, the correct answer is:

✅ (E) None of the above

Exam Fact:

Preamble → USA

Parliamentary System → UK (England)

Directive Principles of State Policy → Ireland

Fundamental Duties → USSR (Russia)

P-2. The States having the largest number of Lok Sabha constituencies, in ascending order, are:

(A) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar

Explanation:

The states with the highest number of Lok Sabha seats are:

State Lok Sabha Seats
Uttar Pradesh 80
Maharashtra 48
West Bengal 42
Bihar 40

Thus, the correct order (highest to lower among these) is:
Uttar Pradesh → Maharashtra → West Bengal → Bihar.

State	Lok Sabha Seats
Uttar Pradesh	80
Maharashtra	48
West Bengal	42
Bihar	40

P-3. Why is democracy a better form of Government?

(A) It is more accountable.
(B) It has improved quality of decision making.
(C) It deals with differences and conflicts.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:

According to NCERT Civics, democracy is considered a better form of government because:

It is more accountable.

It improves the quality of decision-making.

It provides a peaceful way to resolve differences and conflicts.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

P-4. The President exercises his/her powers on the advice of

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) Council of Ministers

Explanation:

According to Article 74 of the Constitution of India, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

P-5. What does the anti-defection law suggest?

(A) Regulation of internal affairs
(B) Amended to prevent changing parties
(C) Compulsory to file income tax returns
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Amended to prevent changing parties

Explanation:

The Anti-Defection Law, introduced through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, aims to:

Prevent elected representatives from defecting (switching political parties).

Ensure political stability and reduce unethical political practices.

P-6. Who said, “Democracy is the government of the people, by the people, for the people”?

(A) Adam Smith
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) Abraham Lincoln

Explanation:

This famous definition of democracy was given by Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, during the Gettysburg Address (1863).

P-7. Right to Education (RTE), which came into effect on 1st April, 2010, comes under which of the following Fundamental Rights?

(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Right to Education (RTE) is guaranteed under Article 21A of the Constitution, inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, and implemented from 1 April 2010.

It forms part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21), not:

Right to Equality (Articles 14–18),

Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22), or

Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30).

Therefore, among the given options, the correct answer is:

✅ (E) None of the above

P-8. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution in 1976 by which of the following Amendment Acts?

(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 38th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment

Explanation:

The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Important Facts:

42nd Amendment (1976): Added 10 Fundamental Duties.

86th Amendment (2002): Added the 11th Fundamental Duty (providing education to children aged 6–14 years).

P-9. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

(A) Sarat Chandra Bose
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Sarojini Naidu

Explanation:

Sarat Chandra Bose – Member of the Constituent Assembly. ✔

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad – Member of the Constituent Assembly. ✔

Sarojini Naidu – Not a member of the Constituent Assembly. ✘

Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

P-10. Which of the following are incorrect about the Money Bills?

It is related to financial matters.

It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

It can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha only.

Certificate from the Speaker is required on its nature.

Select the correct answer.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3, 4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

Evaluate each statement:

Related to financial matters ✔ Correct (Article 110)

Can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha ✔ Correct

Can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha ✘ Incorrect

Speaker's certification is required ✔ Correct

Only Statement 3 is incorrect. Since no option lists 3 only, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-11. The Supreme Court of India came into existence on

(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 26th January, 1961
(C) 2nd October, 1952
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28 January 1950.
Since this date is not among the options, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-12. Consider the following about the Lok Adalat:

It is an inexpensive judicial service.

It resolves disputes in a single hearing.

It provides speedy justice.

A retired judge chairs the Lok Adalat.

It is an apex court.

Select the correct answer.
(A) 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 3, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:

1. Inexpensive justice ✔

2. Settles disputes quickly, often in one sitting ✔

3. Provides speedy justice ✔

4. Usually chaired by a serving or retired judicial officer ✔

5. It is an apex court ✘ Incorrect. The Supreme Court is India's apex court.

Hence, statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

P-13. Apartheid was followed as an official policy between 1948–1989 by which country?

(A) South Africa
(B) China
(C) USA
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) South Africa

Explanation:

Apartheid was a policy of racial segregation and discrimination officially enforced in South Africa from 1948 until the early 1990s. It denied political and civil rights to the non-white population.
Important Fact:

Nelson Mandela became the first Black President of South Africa in 1994, marking the end of apartheid.

P-14. National Voters' Day is celebrated every year on

(A) 14th September
(B) 25th January
(C) 5th June
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (B) 25th January

Explanation:

National Voters' Day is observed every year on 25 January to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (ECI), which was established on 25 January 1950. The day aims to encourage citizens, especially young voters, to participate in the electoral process.

P-15. What is incorrect about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?

(A) It is a 15-member Council in which 5 are permanent and 10 are elected by the General Assembly for 2 years.
(B) Each permanent member has veto power.
(C) IMF and World Bank are its funding agencies.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) IMF and World Bank are its funding agencies

Explanation:

Statement A: ✔ Correct. The UNSC has 15 members—5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members elected for 2-year terms.

Statement B: ✔ Correct. The 5 permanent members (P5)—China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States—have veto power.

Statement C: ✘ Incorrect. The IMF and World Bank are specialized international financial institutions; they are not funding agencies of the UNSC.

Therefore, Option (C) is the incorrect statement.

P-16. Which of the following acts as a counterweight to electoral malpractices?

(A) Misuse of Government machinery by the ruling party
(B) Excessive use of money to intimidate voters
(C) Popular support enjoyed by a party/coalition
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (C) Popular support enjoyed by a party/coalition

Explanation:

Options A and B are examples of electoral malpractices, not checks against them.

Popular support reflects the democratic choice of the electorate and serves as a legitimate basis for electoral success.

Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.

P-17. Mandal Commission, in its Report (1980), recommended _____ reservation in Government jobs for socially and educationally backward classes.

(A) 27%
(B) 22%
(C) 15%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (A) 27%

Explanation:

The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission), headed by B. P. Mandal, recommended 27% reservation in Central Government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The recommendations were implemented in 1990.

P-18. Which Fundamental Right is called the "heart and soul" of our Constitution?

(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom of Religion
(C) Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution because it enables citizens to enforce their Fundamental Rights through the courts.

Since Right to Constitutional Remedies is not among the options, the correct answer is:

✅ (E) None of the above

P-19. Which Right is specific to minorities?

(A) Right to Freedom of Religion
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Fundamental Right specifically meant to protect the interests of minorities is Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29 and 30), which allow minorities to conserve their language, script, culture, and establish educational institutions.

Since Cultural and Educational Rights is not listed among the options, the correct answer is:

✅ (E) None of the above

P-20. Which is not correct about the Constituent Assembly?

(A) It had more than 300 members.
(B) Its first meeting was held in July 1946.
(C) It adopted many details and procedures from the Government of India Act, 1935.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Its first meeting was held in July 1946

Explanation:

(A) ✔ Correct. After the partition of India, the Constituent Assembly had 299 members (before partition it had 389). Many textbooks describe it as having "more than 300 members" before partition.

(B) ✘ Incorrect. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946, not in July 1946.

(C) ✔ Correct. The Assembly adopted several administrative provisions and procedures from the Government of India Act, 1935.

Hence, Option (B) is the incorrect statement.

P-21. Which of the following is not an element of the Belgium model?

(A) Brussels has one government in which both the French- and Dutch-speaking communities have equal representation.
(B) The State Government is not subordinate to the Central Government.
(C) Apart from the two governments, the third kind of government is the Community Government.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

All three statements are correct features of the Belgian model of power sharing:

Equal representation in the Brussels Government.

State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.

Existence of a Community Government.

Since none of the statements is incorrect, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-22. In which year was an Act passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka?

(A) 1957
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) 1956

Explanation:

The Official Language Act, 1956, commonly known as the Sinhala Only Act, declared Sinhala as the sole official language of Sri Lanka. This contributed to ethnic tensions between the Sinhala majority and the Tamil minority.

P-23. Which of the following is incorrect about power sharing?

(A) Power is shared among different organs of the government.
(B) Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
(C) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

All three statements are correct according to NCERT Class 10 Civics:

Power sharing exists among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

It is also shared among Central, State, and Local Governments.

Every democratic society benefits from power sharing, regardless of its size or social diversity.

Therefore, none of the statements is incorrect.

P-24. Which of the following is included in the Concurrent List?

(A) Forest
(B) Agriculture
(C) Police
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Forest

Explanation:

The Concurrent List (Seventh Schedule of the Constitution) includes subjects on which both the Union and State Governments can legislate.
Examples include:

Forest ✔

Education ✔

Marriage and Divorce ✔

Population Control ✔

Agriculture → State List

Police → State List

Therefore, Forest is the correct answer.

P-25. Which of the following countries has the least participation of women in public life?

(A) Sweden
(B) Norway
(C) China
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) China

Explanation:

Among the given options:

Sweden and Norway are known for high representation of women in politics and public life.

China has comparatively lower female political participation than Sweden and Norway.

Therefore, China is the correct answer.

P-26. What does the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 provide?

(A) Equal representation in politics
(B) Equal wages for all genders
(C) Jobs recruitment for all
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Equal wages for all genders

Explanation:

The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 provides for equal pay to men and women for the same work or work of a similar nature. It also prohibits discrimination in recruitment on the basis of gender for the same type of work.

Exam Note: The Act has now been subsumed under the Code on Wages, 2019, but questions based on the 1976 Act remain common in competitive examinations.

P-27. Mahatma Gandhi used to say that _____ can never be separated from politics.

(A) Society
(B) Religion
(C) Economy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Religion

Explanation:

According to NCERT Class 10 Civics, Mahatma Gandhi believed that religion cannot be separated from politics. However, by religion he meant moral values and ethical principles, not the promotion of any particular religion.

P-28. Which of the following is true about democracy?

(A) Democracy often frustrates the needs and ignores the demands of people.
(B) Democracy is corruption-less.
(C) Democracy is irregular.
(D) More than one of the above.
(E) None of the above.
✅ Official Answer: (A) Democracy often frustrates the needs and ignores the demands of people.

Explanation:

According to NCERT, democracy has both strengths and limitations. One limitation is that democratic governments may sometimes be slow in responding to people's demands, leading to frustration.

(B) Incorrect: Democracies are not free from corruption.

(C) Incorrect: Democracy is a regular and constitutional system of government.

Hence, Option (A) is correct.

P-29. Which of the following role is not played by political parties?

(A) They make laws for the country.
(B) One party supports another for the formation of government.
(C) They can have the same views and opinions on all issues.
(D) More than one of the above.
(E) None of the above.
✅ Official Answer: (C) They can have the same views and opinions on all issues.

Explanation:

Political parties:

Contest elections.

Form and run governments.

Make laws through elected representatives.

Provide opposition and policy alternatives.

Political parties do not have identical views on all issues; they differ in ideology and policies. Therefore, Option (C) is not a role of political parties.

P-30. To become a State Party, a party has to secure at least ____ of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State.

(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 10%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) 6%

Explanation:

According to the Election Commission of India (ECI), one of the conditions for recognition as a State Party is securing at least 6% of the valid votes in a Legislative Assembly or Lok Sabha election in the State, along with meeting the required seat criteria.

P-31. Which of the following countries comes under the 'Coming Together' Federation?

(A) Belgium
(B) Switzerland
(C) Spain
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) Switzerland

Explanation:

A 'Coming Together' Federation is formed when independent states voluntarily unite to form a larger federation while retaining substantial autonomy.
Examples:

Switzerland ✔

USA ✔

Australia ✔

Belgium and Spain are examples of 'Holding Together' Federations, where power is shared to maintain unity.

P-32. What is it called when power is taken away from the Central and State Governments and given to local governments?

(A) Decentralization
(B) Centralization
(C) Departmentalization
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Decentralization

Explanation:

Decentralization refers to the transfer of powers, responsibilities, and financial resources from the Central and State Governments to local self-government institutions, such as:

Panchayats (Rural)

Municipalities (Urban)

This strengthens grassroots democracy and improves local governance.

P-33. When did the Black Power Movement emerge?

(A) 1975
(B) 1966
(C) 1989
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (B) 1966

Explanation:

The Black Power Movement emerged in 1966 in the United States. The slogan "Black Power" was popularized by Stokely Carmichael (Kwame Ture) during the Civil Rights Movement. It emphasized:

Racial pride

Self-determination

Political and economic empowerment of African Americans

P-34. Which Article is related to the Election Commission of India?

(A) Article 324
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 342
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Article 324

Explanation:

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Important Articles:

Article 324 – Election Commission

Article 148 – Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

Article 342 – Scheduled Tribes

P-35. Article 300 of the Constitution of India is related to

(A) Trials and proceedings
(B) Government contracts
(C) Attorney General
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

Article 300 deals with the right of the Government of India and the States to sue or be sued.

Government contracts are covered under Article 299.

Attorney General is covered under Article 76.

Since none of the given options correctly describes Article 300, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-36. How many times can the President of India be elected?

(A) One time
(B) Two times
(C) Three times
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The Constitution of India does not prescribe any limit on the number of terms a person may serve as President, provided they continue to meet the eligibility criteria and are elected.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-37. How much time was taken to frame the Constitution of India?

(A) 5 years 10 months 12 days
(B) 3 years 9 months 18 days
(C) 2 years 11 months 18 days
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) 2 years 11 months 18 days

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly worked from 9 December 1946 to 26 November 1949, taking 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to draft and adopt the Constitution.

P-38. Who among the following was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(A) Pratibha Patil
(B) Urmila Singh
(C) Meira Kumar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (C) Meira Kumar

Explanation:

Meira Kumar became the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 2009.

Pratibha Patil was the first woman President of India.

Urmila Singh served as a Governor, not as Speaker.

P-39. When was the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) established?

(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Since 1993 is not among the options, the correct answer is:
✅ (E) None of the above

P-40. Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to proclaim

(A) Financial Emergency
(B) President's Rule
(C) Suspension of Fundamental Rights
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
✅ Official Answer: (A) Financial Emergency

Explanation:

Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
Important Emergency Articles:

Article 352 – National Emergency

Article 356 – President's Rule (State Emergency)

Article 360 – Financial Emergency

Exam Fact: No Financial Emergency has ever been declared in India.

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BPSC TRE 1.0 SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER WITH SOLUTIONS( 9 and 10)

BPSC TRE 1.0 SOCIAL SCIENCE PAPER WITH SOLUTIONS( 9 and 10)

HISTORY

H-1. Which major city of the Indus Valley Civilization is known to have had trade relations with West Asia?

H-2. Of which metal was the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro made?

H-3. Which animal worship has been found in the Indus Valley Civilization?

H-4. How many Suktas (Hymns) are there in the Rigveda?

H-5. Who wrote Kiratarjuniya?

H-6. What does the term "Pur" mean in the Vedic period?

H-7. What was the term 'Takshan' used for in the Rigvedic period?

H-8. Of which metal were the Kakani coins of the Mauryan period made?

H-9. By whom was the world's first republic established in Vaishali?

H-10. Into how many major books (Adhikaranas) is Kautilya's Arthashastra divided?

H-11. Whom did Iltutmish appoint as the first Governor of Bihar?

H-12. Which region was the main area of Birsa Munda's movement?

H-13. Who was the leader of the Revolt of 1857 from Bihar?

H-14. What was the first capital of Magadha?

H-15. Which of the following source gives information about the administration of Pataliputra?

H-16. In Mughal administration, 'Madad-i-Maash' referred to

H-17. What was the objective of the Poona Pact (1932)?

H-18. Who constructed the Jantar Mantar observatories?

H-19. Who wrote "Vande Mataram"?

H-20. Christopher Columbus, who discovered America in 1492, was financed by which country?

H-21. The Boston Tea Party is associated with the

H-22. Why is 4th July 1776 considered important in the history of the USA?

H-23. Who was the ruler of France at the time of the French Revolution?

H-24. During the Industrial Revolution, the cotton textile industry was revolutionized by the Spinning Jenny, invented by

H-25. The Young Italy Movement (1831), which aimed to establish a republic, was started by

H-26. The architect of the Unification of Germany, who believed in the policy of "Blood and Iron", was

H-27. The United States entered the Second World War mainly because of

H-28. Who was the ruler of China when Marco Polo visited?

H-29. Which was the first permanent English settlement in the USA?

H-30. The Tennis Court Oath is associated with the

H-31. The Treaty of Sèvres (1920) was signed between the Allied Powers and

H-32. Who invented the Flying Shuttle in 1733?

H-33. By which treaty was the Thirty Years' War (1618–1648) ended?

H-34. Who represented Italy at the Paris Peace Conference (1919)?

H-35. Who chartered (hired) the Komagata Maru ship to sail to Vancouver?

H-36. Which one of the following was not associated with the foundation of the Shore Committee?

H-37. Which incident did Mahatma Gandhi describe as a "Himalayan Blunder"?

H-38. Which woman revolutionary died while leading an attack on the Pahartali European Club near Chittagong?

H-39. Which of the following revolutionaries was not associated with the Kakori Train Conspiracy (1925)?

H-40. In which language was the first issue of the Ghadar newspaper published on 1 November 1913?

GEOGRAPHY

G-1. Which of the following is a Vulnerable species in India according to the IUCN Red List?

G-2. The major factor responsible for the depletion of forest resources in India is

G-3. Which movement promotes the development of ecological farming using traditional agricultural methods?

G-4. The Sardar Sarovar Dam project benefits which of the following states?

G-5. Most river valley projects built to control floods have instead aggravated flooding mainly because of

G-6. Which was the first state in India to make rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory through legal provisions?

G-7. As per the Agriculture Report, 2017, India was the second-largest producer of which of the following in the world?

G-8. Which of the following is an institutional reform introduced for the benefit of farmers?

G-9. Koderma in Jharkhand is famous for the production of which mineral?

(A) Bauxite (B) Mica (C) Iron Ore (D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above ✅ Correct Answer: (B) Mica Explanation: Koderma in Jharkhand is popularly known as the "Mica Capital of India" because of its rich deposits of high-quality mica. Exam Fact: Koderma = Mica Capital of India

G-10. Which is the only industry in India that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain?

G-11. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

G-12. Which crop takes almost one year to grow?

G-13. The National Highways in India are primarily developed and maintained by

G-21. Which of the following thermal power plants is located in Bihar?

G-22. Which organization is a major power-producing corporation in India and has ISO 14001 Environmental Management System Certification?

G-23. The Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway connects which four major metropolitan cities?

G-24. Which was the first major port developed in India after Independence?

G-25. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and _____ deposits.

G-26. Which country is the largest producer of rice in the world?

G-27. From which year was the National Forest Policy first introduced in India?

G-28. Which mineral is the principal ore from which aluminium is extracted?

G-29. The Gobi Desert is located in

G-30. The Seine River flows through which city?

(A) London (B) Paris (C) Rome (D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above ✅ Correct Answer: (B) Paris Explanation: The Seine River flows through Paris, the capital of France, and is one of the country's most important rivers. Exam Facts: Seine → Paris Thames → London Tiber → Rome

G-31. Which country is the largest producer of raw jute in the world?

G-32. In which of the following states is iron ore not found in significant quantities?

G-33. Where is Dakshin (Southern) Gangotri located?

G-34. Which is the longest river in South America?

G-35. Which state is the largest producer of wheat in India?

G-36. The Rio Earth Summit (1992) adopted Agenda 21, which focuses on

G-37. Which country is the largest producer of coal in the world?

G-38. Which place is known as the oldest oil-producing field in India?

G-39. Which country is the largest producer of aluminium in the world?

(A) Bauxite
(B) Mica
(C) Iron Ore
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B) Mica

Explanation:
Koderma in Jharkhand is popularly known as the "Mica Capital of India" because of its rich deposits of high-quality mica.

Exam Fact:
Koderma = Mica Capital of India