UGC NET 2015 JUNE Paper-II and III Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers
NTA NET SEPTEMBER ,2020 ক্র্যাকিংয়ের জন্য, বিভিন্ন বিষয়ে পরীক্ষার্থী, তারা আবেদন করছে তার জন্য বিগত বছরের প্রশ্নপত্র গুলি অনুশীলন করতে হবে। এটি নির্ভুলতার সাথে সর্বনিম্ন সময়ে সর্বাধিক প্রশ্নের সঠিক চেষ্টা করার তাদের গতি উন্নত করতে সহায়তা করবে। সুতরাং, এই নিবন্ধে আমরা ইউজিসি নেট 2015 জুন পেপার -2 ও 3 পোস্ট করা হচ্ছে ।
Here is the questions and official answers
Keyword:- , 2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,2015 JUNE paper II and III Answer,
1. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes:
| List-I (Concept) | List-II (Proposer) |
| (a) Peneplain | (i) Holmes |
| (b) Uniformitarianism | (ii) W.M. Davis |
| (c) Tetrahedral hypothesis | (iii) Hutton |
| (d) Convectional Current Theory | (iv) Lothian Green |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (2) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (i) | (ii) | (i)v | (iii) |
| (4) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
Answer: 1
2. Ria is an example of:
(1) Deposited land features
(2) Submerged upland shorelines
(3) Emerged upland shorelines
(4) Eroded land forms
Answer: 2
3. Who postulated the ‘Progressive Wave Theory of Tides’?
(1) C. Darwin
(2) William Whewill
(3) R.A. Haris
(4) Daly
Answer: 2
4. Who wrote the book “Illustration of the Huttonian Theory of the earth”?
(1) James Hutton
(2) John Playfair
(3) Vidal de laBlache
(4) W. M. Davis
Answer: 2
5. Who postulated the concept of base level?
(1) Walther Penck
(2) W. M. Davis
(3) J. W. Powell
(4) James Hutton
Answer: 3
6. According to single – cell circulation model proposed by George Hadley the most important factor causing the global atmospheric circulation is:
(1) The rotation of the earth
(2) The jet stream
(3) Subsidence at the equator
(4) Temperature contrast between equator and pole
Answer: 4
7. The westerlies and trade winds are example of ‘_________ winds’.
(1) Mesoscale
(2) Top scale
(3) Macro scale
(4) Micro scale
Answer: 3
8. When water evaporates the energy that was used to evaporate the water:
(1) heats up the surrounding air as evaporation takes place
(2) will never be available again
(3) is stored as latent heat in the evaporated water molecule
(4) is destroyed
Answer: 3
9. Meteorologists group tropical cyclones into three main categories according to:
(1) barometric pressure in the eye of storm
(2) precipitation
(3) diameter of the storm
(4) wind velocity
Answer: 4
10. A given volume of air holds 20 gram of water vapor. At that temperature, the air would be saturate with 80 grams of water vapor. What is the relative humidity?
(1) 40%
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 80%
Answer: 3
11. Surface circulation of ocean water is driven by:
(1) Resisting force
(2) Tidal force
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Blowing wind
Answer: 4
12. For coastal sand dune formation, the ideal grain size diameter is:
(1) 0.15 mm
(2) 0.50 mm
(3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.75
Answer: 3
13. Coastal area greatly affected by storm surge is:
(1) Andhra coast
(2) West Bengal coast
(3) Chennai coast
(4) Kerala coast
Answer: 2
14. How many essential nutrients are required by plants to fulfill their growth requirements?
(1) 24
(2) 22
(3) 20
(4) 18
Answer: 4
15. Mesophytes are predominated in:
(1) Tropical region
(2) Sub – polar region
(3) Temperate region
(4) Polar region
Answer: 3
16. Who is regarded as the father of Human Geography?
(1) Ratzel
(2) Blache
(3) Trewartha
(4) Vallaux
Answer: 1
17. Match List-I wiith List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Approches) | List-II (Contributors) |
| (a) Neo-Determinism | (i) D.M. Smith |
| (b) Welfare | (ii) Guman Olsson |
| (c) Behavioral | (iii) Griffith Taylor |
| (d) Modern Humanist | (iv) William Kirk |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (3) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
Answer: 2
18. Who is the pioneer in commercial Geography?
(1) H.J. Mackinder
(2) G.G Chisholm
(3) Patrick Geddes
(4) O.H.K. Spate
Answer: 2
19. Which one of the following philosophers did propagate the principle of Unity in Diversity?
(1) Carl Ritter
(2) Immanuel Kant
(3) Alexander Von Humboldt
(4) O.H.K. Spate
Answer: 1
20. To which school of Geography does E.C Semple belong?
(1) American School of Geography
(2) Russuan School of Geography
(3) British School of Geography
(4) French school of Geography
Answer: 1
21. Which one of the following state recorded the lowest decadal growth rate of population
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Nagaland
Answer: 4
22. According to 2011 census, which state recorded the highest child sex-ratio (0-6 years)?
(1) Manipur
(2) Mizoram
(3) Meghalaya
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: 4
23. Out of total population of 121 crore, what was the level of urbanisation in 2011 census?
(1) 33.16%
(2) 32.16%
(3) 30.16%
(4) 31.16%
Answer: 4
24. In which one of the cities first city improvement trust was set up?
(1) Bombay
(2) Calcutta
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
Answer: 1
25. Harwood and Boyce described which term epigrammatically as “Devoted to people, paper work and parcels”?
(1) Frame
(2) Core
(3) Periphery
(4) Fringe
Answer: 2
26. Consider the following statement:
(a) Nearly 30% of the petroleum production in the world is from the off shore areas.
(b) The exclusive economic zone in the ocean extends up to 100 nautical miles from the coast.
(c) Only less than 1% of marine area is declared as protected area.
(d) The largest marine protected area is the Great Barrier Reef.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) and (d)
Answer: 2
27. Which one of the following groups of countries represents the flow of food gains to food deficit regions of the world?
(1) North America, Argentina, Indian Sub-continent and China to Western Europe, Middle East and japan
(2) Australia, South Africa, India to Middle East, Western Europe and North Africa
(3) North America, Argentina, South Africa and Australia to japan, Russia and Western Europe.
(4) North America, Australia, Russia /middle East to China, japan and Middle East
Answer: 3
28. Which one of the following groups of countries requires import of iron to sustain their demand?
(1) Western Europe, Brazil and Canada
(2) Japan, Western Europe and U.S.A.
(3) India, China and South Africa
(4) U.S.A., Western Europe and Mexico
Answer: 2
29. Which one of the following is the busiest oceanic trade route?
(1) Panama
(2) North Atlantic route
(3) Suez Canal
(4) Cape route
Answer: 2
30. Balance of trade of India is always negative with the Middle Eastern Countries due to the import of:
(1) Food Material
(2) Cotton textile
(3) Coal and Iron
(4) Petroleum
Answer: 4
31. Which one of the following authors has classified Indian Races?
(1) R.L. Singh
(2) Sir Herbert Risley
(3) Huntigton
(4) Trewarth
Answer: 2
32. Heart land theory is postulated by:
(1) P.E. James
(2) H.J. Mackinder
(3) G.G. Chisholm
(4) H.R. Mill
Answer: 2
33. Given below are two statement, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Cuba and U.S.A. are nearer to each other in geographical space, but they are not friendly neighbours.
Reason (R): There is strong differences in political philosophy.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A and (R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 1
34. Which one of the following authors has defined the phrase “Culture is that complex whole which includes knowledge, belief, art, morals, law, customs acquired by a man as member of Society”?
(1) E.B. Taylor
(2) R.H. Lowie
(3) Kroeber
(4) Goldenweiser
Answer: 1
35. Indian people elect representatives to house of People by:
(1) Single preference ballot
(2) People’s choice in Gram Sabha
(3) Nomination by a panel of experts
(4) Election through state legislature
Answer: 1
36. Whose theory did propagate that ‘an area is poor because it is poor’:
(1) Myrdal
(2) Berry
(3) Hirschman
(4) Boudeville
Answer: 1
37. IN which one of the following concept the term ‘triple bottom line’ (TBL) reflecting the importance of environmental, social and economic factors in decision making is defined?
(1) Inclusivity
(2) Sustainability
(3) Poly-centricity
(4) Mono-centric
Answer: 2
38. Which one of the following Regions is characterised by communication networks flowing upwards and downwards through a succession of service centres of varying significance?
(1) Heterogenous
(2) Homogenous
(3) Nodal
(4) Administrative
Answer: 3
39. Which one of the following planning regions develops along transportation line or irrigation channels?
(1) Transitional Regions
(2) River Valley Regions
(3) Axial development Regions
(4) City Regions
Answer: 3
40. Who has designed the plan of Chandigarh City?
(1) Ernst May
(2) Le Corbusier
(3) Soria Y Matte
(4) Charles Edward jenneret
Answer: 2
41. In Which part of India Dandakaranaya is situated?
(1) North Eastern
(2) South Eastern
(3) Central
(4) Northern
Answer: 2
42. Teesta river is a tributary of:
(1) Subansiri
(2) Meghna
(3) Ganga
(4) Brahmaputra
Answer: 2
43. Which one of the following states has the maximum area under teak forest of India?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Karnataka
(4) Tertiary sedimentaries
Answer: 4
44. In which one of the following rocks almost all workable oil deposits of India is located?
(1) Ancient granites
(2) Ancient sedimentaries
(3) Metamorphic formation
(4) Tertiary sedimentaries
Answer: 4
45. Which one of the following coastal area of India was affected by ‘Hudhud’ cyclone?
(a) Chennai coast
(b) Kerala coast
(c) Andhra Pradesh coast
(d) Bengal coast
Answer: 3
46. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) Arithmetic mean is a numerical value
(2) Arithmetic mean is not affected by the variability in the data sets
(3) Arithmetic mean is always a positive number
(4) Arithmetic mean is not useful for any further statistical analysis of the data
Answer: 1
47. Which one of the following central tendencies is the appropriate method for the study of dispersion?
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) Geometric mean
Answer: 2
48. Which one of the following cartographic techniques is suitable for measuring spatial association among different attributes of the regional economy?
(1) Bar diagram
(2) Pie diagram
(3) Choropleth
(4) Isopleth
Answer: 1
49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Method) | List-II (uses) |
| (a) Isopleth | (i) Natural groupings |
| (b) Dot maps | (ii) Distribution of population |
| (c) Scatter diagrams | (iii) Wind direction |
| (d) Star diagrams | (iv) Changes |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) |
| (2) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) |
| (3) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
Answer: 3
50. Which one of the following is shown with the help of Isobaths?
(1) Salinity of sea Water
(2) Depth of Ocean water
(3) Altitude of Oceanic ridge
(4) Amplitude of wave
Answer: 2
PAPER 3- UGC-NET -GEPGRAPHY 2015 JUNE
1. Which of the following is formed due to tectonic forces?
(1) Rift valley
(2) Hanging valley
(3) Super imposed valley
(4) Antecedent valley
Answer: 1
2. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitudes regions are known as:
(1) Ocean trenches
(2) Submarine ridges
(3) Fiords
(4) Submarine canons
Answer: 3
3. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Basalt | (i) Geneis |
| (b) Granite | (ii) Quartzite |
| (c) Sandstone | (iii) Schist |
| (d) Shale | (iv) Slate |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
| (4) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) |
Answer: 4
4. Consider the following statement regarding kants view on the origin of the earth:
(a) Kant introduced the Newtonian law of gravitation in his theory.
(b) Kant developed his theory accepting the principle of conservation of angular momentum.
(c) Though Laplace put forward the nebular hypothesis of origin of the earth, Kant is regarded by many as the real propounder of the nebular hypothesis.
Which of the statements are correct?
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a) (b) and (c)
Answer: 4
5. Excessive folding results in:
(1) Reverse fault
(2) Geosyncline
(3) Nappe formation
(4) Block disintegration
Answer: 3
6. “All coral reefs begun as fringe reefs around an inland”. This was indicated in:
(1) Day’s glacial control theory
(2) Daly’s subsidence theory
(3) Darwin’s glacial control theory
(4) Darwin’s subsidence theory
Answer: 4
7. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the:
(1) Upper core and lower core
(2) Mantle and the core
(3) Crust and the mantle
(4) Upper mantle and lower mantle
Answer: 2
8. Who postulated the concept of Sea floor spreading?
(1) W.J. Morgan
(2) T. J. Wilson
(3) Le Pichon
(4) Harry Hess
Answer: 4
9. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for:
(1) Botanical garden
(2) Monitoring rainfall
(3) Monitoring rainfall
(4) Continuous monitoring of atmospheric since 1957
Answer: 4
10. Match the List-I and List-II select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Isohel | (i) Line joining places having same average percentage of cloudiness |
| (b) Isohaline | (ii) line joining the places having same duration of sunshine |
| (c) Isotach | (iii) line joining the place having equal salinity in the ocean |
| (d) Isoneph | (iv) Line joining place having equal wind speed |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer:3
11. The only truly continuous pressure belt on the earth is:
(1) Southern hemisphere subtropical high
(2) Northern hemisphere subtropical high
(3) Equatorial low
(4) Southerm hemisphere sub polar low
Answer: 4
12. Which two global winds originate from the subtropical highs?
(1) Polar easterlies and westerlies
(2) Trade winds and polar easterlies
(3) Trade winds and westerlies
(4) Chinook and Foehn
Answer: 3
13. An aircraft is flying at an altitude of 10 km. At that altitude the temperature is − 40. What is the ambient temperature on the ground:
(1) 24°C
(2) 25°C
(3) 30°C
(4) 20°C
Answer: 2
14. Which one of the following is not a necessary condition for condensation?
(1) Saturation
(2) Surface
(3) High altitude
(4) Water vapour
Answer: 3
15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subject to an equal amount of insolation
Reason (R) : The specific heat of land is more than that of water
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: 3
16. Which of the following does not enhance the instability of air?
(1) Radiation cooling of earth’s surface after sun set
(2) Rasiation cooling from cloud top
(3) Heating an air mass from below as it passes over a warm surface
(4) Intense solar heating in the lowermost atmosphere
Answer: 1
17. The speed of a ocean current is about:
(1) 2% of the speed of prevailing wind
(2) 4% of the speed of prevailing wind
(3) 6% of the speed of prevailing wind
(4) 8% of the speed of prevailing wind
Answer: 1
18. The ocean water was iceberg free during the era:
(1) Archaean
(2) Paleozoic
(3) Cenozoic
(4) Mesozoic
Answer: 4
19. The salinity of sea ice ranges from:
(1) 0 – 3%
(2) 3 – 10%
(3) 11 – 17%
(4) 28 – 35%
Answer: 2
20. Match List – I with List –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (River) | List – II (Sediment transported to ocean in tons/y) |
| (a) Ganga | (i) 726 |
| (b) Mekong | (ii) 500 |
| (c) Brahmputra | (iii) 1600 |
| (d) Yangtze | (iv) 1000 |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (2) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
| (4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer: 3
21. The place where an organism or community of organisms lives is called:
(1) Environment
(2) Atmosphere
(3) Habitat
(4) Society
Answer: 3
22. Photosynthesis is the process by which:
(1) Radiant energy converted into chemical energy
(2) Radiant energy converted into thermal energy
(3) Radiant energy concerted into bio-energy
(4) Radiant energy converted into geo-thermal energy
Answer: 1
23. ‘Vadose water’ remain in between:
(1) Crust and mantle
(2) Mantle and core
(3) Ground surface and water table
(4) Ground surface and tropopause
Answer: 3
24. Which one of the following is not a macro-nutrient to plants?
(1) Carbon
(2) Iron
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
Answer: 2
25. The concept of the laws of ‘primate city’ was given by:
(1) E. Huntington
(2) E. C. Semple
(3) M. Jefferson
(4) W. Christaller
Answer: 3
26. To Which school does Eratosthenes, the father of geography belongs to:
(1) Roman
(2) Arab
(3) German
(4) Greek
Answer: 4
27. Von thunen’ Agricultural locational theoty is bases on:
(1) Empirical Approach
(2) Normative Approach
(3) Deductive Approach
(4) Behavioral Approach
Answer: 2
28. Who was gratly influenced by Le Play’s triology of Place – Work – Folk and adopted an alternate triology of Environment – Function – Organism?
(1) Roxby
(2) Geddes
(3) Herbertsen
(4) Chisholm
Answer: 2
29. Which Indian geographer has written the book ‘Geography of Purans’?
(1) S. M. Ali
(2) P. P. Karan
(3) M. Shafi
(4) B. Dubey
Answer: 1
30. Match List – I with List- II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Modern Indian geographers) | List – II (Field of Specializations) |
| (a) R.L Singh | (i) Urban Geography |
| (b) G.S. Gosal | (ii) Settlement Geography |
| (c) C.D. Despande | (iii) Regional Development and planning |
| (d) V.L.S. Prakash Rao | (iv) Population Geography |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
| (3) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| (4) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
Answer: 3
31. Who among the following scholars is not related with behavioural geography?
(1) W.K. Kink
(2) Peter Gould
(3) Yi Fu Twan
(4) Gilbert White
Answer: 3
32. Which one of the following states in India has the lowest population density in the latest census?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Sikkim
(4) Mizoram
Answer: 1
33. Which of the following stages of districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?
(1) High stationary stage
(2) Early expanding stage
(3) Late expanding stage
(4) Low stationary stage
Answer: 1
34. Which one of the following districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?
(1) Mahe (Pondicherry)
(2) Almora (Uttarakhand)
(3) Alwar (Rajasthan)
(4) Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu)
Answer: 1
35. Which one of the following density is calculated using following formula: 
where N is the number of inhabitants, K is per capita quantity of requirement, S is area in square kilometers, and K’ is the quantity of resources produced per km²
(1) Arithmetic
(2) Agricultural
(3) Physiological
(4) Economic
Answer: 4
36. Which one of the following measures of central tendency is used to indicate the ‘centre of population’?
(1) Median
(2) Mode
(3) Mean
(4) Harmonic mean
Answer: 3
37. Which of the concept relates population size to the land area with a view to assess pressure of population upon the resources of thee area?
(1) Population Growth Rate
(2) Population Density
(3) Argiculture Density
(4) Physiological Density
Answer: 2
38. Which one of the following religions has maximum territorial region of dominance in the world?
(1) Budhism
(2) Islam
(3) Christianity
(4) Hinduism
Answer: 3
39. Which one of the following authors has given the concept of “Demand cone” as shown in the diagram?
(1) Pareto
(2) August Losch
(3) Christaller
(4) Weber
Answer: 2
40. Which of the following group of crops can be grown in the area having temperature and annual rainfall more than 150 cm?
(1) Barley, Jute, Tea
(2) Rubber, Rice Jute
(3) Tea, Coffee, Maize
(4) Rice, Wheat, Maize
Answer: 2
41. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Authors) | List – II (Theory) |
| (a) Weber | (i) Minimum production cost |
| (b) Smith | (ii) Maximum profit |
| (c) Hotelling | (iii) Minimum transport cost |
| (d) Hoover | (iv) Market competition |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (2) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (4) | (i) | (ii) | (iv) | (iii) |
Answer: 1
42. Given below are two statements one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R) select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A ): All Japanese steel production occurs at coastal locations.
Reason (R): The Japanese steel capacity has a coastal exposure and direct access to deep-water ports.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) as not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 1
43. Consider the following map of an area:
Answer: 3
44. Which one of the following is correct sequence of urban land uses in respect of ab, bc and cd as per given graph? Image of Correct Sequence of Urban Land
(1) Industrial, Residential and Commercial
(2) Commercial, Residential and Industrial
(3) Commercial, Industrial and Residential
(4) Residential, Commercial and Industrial
Answer: 2
45. Whiteness classified agricultural systems of the world. How many agricultural systems were identified by him?
(1) 10
(2) 19
(3) 14
(4) 13
Answer: 4
46. Which one of the following group of countries is leading total coal import countries of the world in 2013 according to the world coal association?
(1) Bangladesh, South Africa and France, India
(2) Poland, South Africa, japan and France
(3) China, Japan, India, S. Korea
(4) Japan, South Korea, Frannce, Canada
Answer: 3
Q. Match List- I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below:
| List –I (Risely’s classification of India Race) | List- II (Representattives of the respective races) |
| (a) Indo-Aryans | (i) The Bhils of Rajasthan |
| (b) Dravidians | (ii) The Brahmins of Odisha |
| (c) Mongoloids | (iii) The jats of Odisha |
| (d) Mongolo-Dravidians | (iv) The Bhutias of Utarakhand |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (3) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| (4) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
Answer: 4
48. Given below two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R), select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) Indian Ocean has become the military bases by many super- powers.
Reason (R) There is strong geo-political benefits in Indian Ocean and adjacent countries.
Codes.
(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is flase.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 1
49. Match list –I with List –II and select correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (State) | List-II (Tribes) |
| (a) Gujarat | (i) The gonds |
| (b) Madhya Pradesh | (ii) The Mikirs |
| (c) Assam | (iii) The Khonds |
| (d) Odisha | (iv) The Bhils |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
| (3) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (4) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
Answer: 3
50. Match List – I with list –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-I (Countries) | List-II (Party System Government) |
| (a) U.S.A. | (i) One party |
| (b) China | (ii) Two party |
| (c) India | (iii) Three party |
| (d) U.K. | (iv) Multi party |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (ii) | (i) | (iv) | (iii) |
| (3) | (iii) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) |
| (4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer: 2
Q-51. Which of the following statement statements is the base of the concept of caste region?
(1) Numberical strength of a caste
(2) Social ranking of a caste in a region
(3) Proportion of a cast in population
(4) Share of a caste in land ownership
Answer: 3
52. Which one of the following is the propounder of the shown model?
(1) Zelinsky’s Mobility Model
(2) Rely’s Modelvof Migration
(3) Gosal Model of Migration
(4) Lee’s Model of Migration
Answer: 4
53. Which one of the following regions is defined as “A Contiguous geographical area characterised by cultural homogeneity…”
(1) Population Region
(2) Geographical Region
(3) Cultural Realm
(4) Settlement zone
Answer: 3
54. Which constitutional Amendment Act has 12th schedule devolving functions to municipal bodies?
(1) 73rd
(2) 72nd
(3) 74th
(4) 75th
Answer: 3
55. Which of the urban structure models labelled three areas:
(1) The city of death,
(2) the city of need and
(3) the city of superfluity
(1) Exploitive model of urban structure
(2) Multiple nuclei
(3) Sector model
(4) Social area analysis model
Answer: 1
56. To study regional imbalance and regional disparities in India, which one of the following methods was applied?
(1) Uniweighted Ranks
(2) Composite Index
(3) Principal Component Analysis
(4) Input-Output Analysis
Answer: 3
57. Which one of the following factors does not determine the kinds and amount of economic activity in the region?
(1) Cost of Transportation
(2) Inequality of Income
(3) Technology of Production
(4) Demand Side of the Equation
Answer: 2
58. The main thrust of regional planning is:
(1) To remove areal disparity
(2) To initiate economic growth
(3) To have industrial expansion
(4) To increase per capital income
Answer: 1
59. Regional growth model by Douglass C. North emphasize the role of ‘_________ factors’ in regional growth.
(1) Hexagenous
(2) Endogenous
(3) Indogenous
(4) Exogenous
Answer: 4
60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given below:
| List- I (Concept) | List-II (Definitions) |
| (a) Urban growth | (i) Relatively large and densely settled populations engaged primarily in non- agricultural economic pursuits |
| (b) Town group | (ii) Net population increase of towns and cities |
| (c) Urban | (iii) Proportionate increase of the urban population in relation to total population in a given country |
| (d) Urbanisation | (iv) A group of towns which adjoined one another so closely as to form a single inhabited urban locality |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) |
| (2) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
| (3) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) | (i) |
| (4) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) | (iv) |
Answer: 2
61. Where is Govind Sagar Lake located?
(1) Ranjit Sagar Dam
(2) Hirakund Dam
(3) Kosi Dam
(4) Bhakra Nangal Dam
Answer: 4
62. The maximum % share of irrigated area of the gross cultivated area is found in:
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Haryana
Answer: 3
63. Kakrapara irrigation project is on the river:
(1) Narmada
(2) Godavari
(3) Tapti
(4) Mahanadi
Answer: 3
64. The river Indus Originates from:
(1) Mansarowar Lake
(2) Kailash range
(3) Loktak lake
(4) Tibet
Answer: 2
65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R), select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are major wheat producing states of India.
Reason (R): The well-drained fertile soil, temoerature at the time of sowing and about 75 cm rainfall are necessary for good wheat production.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R is th3e correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 1
66. Which of the canal has transformed agricultural activities of Sri Ganga Nagar, Bikaner and jaisalmer district?
(1) Kanhar Canalanga Canal
(2) Ram Ganga Canal
(3) Sharada sahayak Canal
(4) Indira Gandhi Canal
Answer: 4
67. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on education levels of people their health status and per capita income, is:
(1) Human Education Report
(2) Human Population Report
(3) Human Development Report
(4) Human Quaity Report
Answer: 3
68. Spatial data is stored in computer by using:
(1) Plotter digitizer and keyboard
(2) Keyboard and plotter
(3) Scanner, Digitizer and keyboard
(4) Digitizer and scanner
Answer: 4
69. LANDSAT, SPOT and IRS are examples of:
(1) Sun-synchronous satellites
(2) Geostationary satellites
(3) Radars
(4) Natural satellites
Answer: 1
70. Which one of the following statistical method is best suited for groundwater exploration by using GIS tools?
(1) Standard deviation method
(2) Principal component analysis method
(3) Trial and error method
(4) Index-overlay method
Answer: 4
71. Which one of the following countries first launched Operational Remote Sensing satellite?
(1) USA
(2) UK
(3) USSR
(4) Germany
Answer: 1
72. Raster data start from:
(1) Top – Right corner of the displayed window.
(2) Top-left corner of the displayed window.
(3) Bottom-Right corner of the displayed window.
(4) Bottom-Left corner of the displayed window.
Answer: 2
73. Which one of the following terms shows variance of a particular distribution?
Answer: 3
74. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capital income of these families is rs. 5000. If the income of three families is Rs.3000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 7000 respectively, what is the income of fourth family?
(1) 7500
(2) 2000
(3) 3000
(4) 6000
Answer: 4
75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List – I (Landsat 4 and 5 TM) | List-II (System Characteristics) |
| (a) IFOV | (i) 185 km |
| (b) Revisit | (ii) 705 km |
| (c) Altitude | (iii) 16 days |
| (d) Swath. Width | (iv) 30 30 m for 1-5,7 bands |
Codes:
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |
| (1) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (2) | (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
| (3) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (4) | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
Answer: 3
0 Comments