RPSC//  Asst. Prof. (College Education) - 2025 (Geography)(Paper-II)

1. The connectivity index, measured by dividing the total number of edges (arcs) in a network by the total number of nodes, is called:

1. Alpha Index
2. Beta Index
3. Gamma Index
4. Cyclomatic Index
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Beta Index

Explanation:
Beta Index = $\frac{e}{v}$
where

• $e$ = number of edges/arcs
• $v$ = number of nodes

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2. In a transport network, if $e = 4$, $v = 5$, and $g = 1$, then the value of Alpha Index will be:

1. 1.5
2. 0
3. 1
4. 0.5
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) 0

Explanation:
Formula of Alpha Index:

$$\alpha = \frac{e - v + g}{2v - 5}$$

Given:

• $e = 4$
• $v = 5$
• $g = 1$

$$\alpha = \frac{4 - 5 + 1}{(2 \times 5) - 5}$$ $$= \frac{0}{5} = 0$$

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3. Which country first adopted the Inter-Sectoral Economic Balance Model for regional planning?

1. United States of America
2. Soviet Russia
3. Great Britain
4. Israel
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Soviet Russia

Explanation:
The Inter-Sectoral Economic Balance Model is associated with socialist planning and was first widely adopted in Soviet Russia.

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4. The concept of “Backwash Effects” in regional development was proposed by:

1. Forester
2. Myrdal
3. Mackaye
4. Soja
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Myrdal

Explanation:
Swedish economist and geographer Gunnar Myrdal introduced the concepts of “Spread Effects” and “Backwash Effects” in regional development.

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5. The TMG Model (Taffe, Morrill and Gould) identifies how many stages in the sequence of transport development in a developing country?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Eight
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Six

Explanation:
The Taffe-Morrill-Gould Model explains transport network development in developing countries through six stages.

6. The characteristic(s) of the planning region is/are:

A. Hardness of boundaries
B. Natural cohesion
C. Economic viability
D. Functional unity

Codes:

1. only A
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) B, C and D

Explanation:
A planning region generally has:

• Natural cohesion
• Economic viability
• Functional unity

Its boundaries are usually flexible, not hard.

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7. Match the various stages of regional planning according to Chadwick's region method and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I	List-II
A. First stage	i. Goal formation
B. Second stage	ii. Description of the system
C. Third stage	iii. Optimum system model
D. Fourth stage	iv. Projection of the system

Codes:

1. i ii iii iv
2. ii iii iv i
3. ii i iv iii
4. iii ii i iv
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) ii i iv iii

Correct Matching:

• A → ii (Description of the system)
• B → i (Goal formation)
• C → iv (Projection of the system)
• D → iii (Optimum system model)

Explanation:
George Chadwick proposed a systematic regional planning approach involving system description, goal setting, projection, and optimization.

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8. Hirschman’s model of regional development is based on the concept of:

1. Core-Periphery structure
2. Polarisation and Trickling down effect
3. Dependency structure
4. Cumulative causation
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Polarisation and Trickling down effect

Explanation:
Albert O. Hirschman emphasized unbalanced growth, polarization effects, and trickling-down effects in regional development.

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9. As per the principle of vertical unity of phenomena, which among the following spaces is/are included?

A. Real physical space
B. Perceived physical space
C. Economic space
D. Human space

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, C & D
2. B, C & D only
3. only B
4. only D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) A, B, C & D

Explanation:
The principle of vertical unity considers all dimensions of geographical space together:

• Physical
• Perceptual
• Economic
• Human

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10. Which among the following scholars propounded the “Biocentric Model”?

1. Barrford
2. Arvanitis
3. Delly
4. Iszard
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Arvanitis

Explanation:
Arvanitis proposed the Biocentric Model related to regional and environmental planning concepts.

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11. Which of the following is the model proposed by J.R. Friedman?

1. Growth Poles Model
2. Centro-Periphery Model
3. Metro-Satellite Model
4. Polarisation Model
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Centro-Periphery Model

Explanation:
John Friedmann proposed the Core-Periphery (Centro-Periphery) Model explaining spatial inequalities in development.

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12. Which one of the following is not related to the planning of an old city?

1. Preventive planning
2. Remedial planning
3. Zoning planning
4. New-site planning
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) New-site planning

Explanation:
Old city planning mainly involves:

• Preventive planning
• Remedial planning
• Zoning

New-site planning relates to newly developed towns or cities.

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13. The scholar who gave the term “Geotechnology” to regional planning was:

1. Spencer
2. Chadwick
3. Horsmint
4. E. Lewis
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Chadwick

Explanation:
George Chadwick described regional planning as “Geotechnology” because it applies scientific and technological methods to spatial planning.

14. Which of the following is the correct sequence of planning process?

1. Perception → Revelation → Preparation → Execution
2. Revelation → Preparation → Perception → Execution
3. Perception → Revelation → Execution → Preparation
4. Preparation → Execution → Revelation → Perception
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Perception → Revelation → Preparation → Execution

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15. Which of the following is not a procedural method of planning?

1. Comparative cost analysis
2. Goal achievement matrix
3. Threshold analysis
4. Social area analysis
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Social area analysis

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16. Which is a correct match?

Model	Development Economist
A. Socialist model of development	Schumpeter
B. Welfare model of economic development	Marshall and Pigou
C. Innovation and finance model of development	Karl Marx
D. Neo-classical model	Keynes

Codes:

1. only A
2. only B
3. only B and C
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) only B

Explanation:

• Welfare model → Alfred Marshall and Arthur Cecil Pigou is correctly matched.
• Innovation & finance model is related to Joseph Schumpeter, not Karl Marx.
• Neo-classical model is not associated with John Maynard Keynes.

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17. Which method was used by K.V. Sundaram to study regional disparities in India?

1. Quartile Index Method
2. Range Categorisation Method
3. Principal Component Method
4. Deprivation Index Method
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Deprivation Index Method

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18. Which geographer provided the base for establishing Population Geography as an independent sub-field?

1. Zelinsky
2. Trewartha
3. Baker
4. Geddes
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Trewartha

Explanation:
Glenn T. Trewartha strongly advocated Population Geography as a separate branch of geography.

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19. Which of the following is not a component of population dynamics?

1. Fertility
2. Mortality
3. Urbanization
4. Migration
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Urbanization

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20. Standardized Birth Rate has been measured with the help of:

1. Age Specific Birth Rate
2. Total Fertility Rate
3. Gross Birth Rate
4. Total number of surviving children in a year
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Age Specific Birth Rate

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21. In which Five Year Plan was the Hill Area Development Programme initiated?

1. Third Five Year Plan
2. Sixth Five Year Plan
3. Fourth Five Year Plan
4. Fifth Five Year Plan
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Fifth Five Year Plan

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22. Which region of the world is experiencing a negative yearly growth rate in 2025?

1. Latin America and Caribbean
2. Oceania
3. Europe
4. North America
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Europe

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23. According to the World Migration Report 2024, what percentage of the world’s male population migrated internationally in 2020?

1. 4.9%
2. 3.2%
3. 2.9%
4. 3.7%
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) 3.2%

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24. Which country has the highest population density per km² arable land? (PRB 2023)

1. Maldives
2. Pakistan
3. Nepal
4. Sri Lanka
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Maldives

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25. How many of the following are determinants of fertility?

A. Degree of urbanization
B. Working/non-working status of women
C. Race
D. Level of income

1. only one
2. only two
3. only three
4. All four
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) All four

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26. Who proposed the “Intervening Opportunity Model” of migration?

1. Lee
2. Zipf
3. Stouffer
4. Lewis
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Stouffer

Explanation:
Samuel A. Stouffer proposed the Intervening Opportunity Model.

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27. In India, from which Census year has effective literacy rate been calculated for population aged 7 years and above?

1. 1991
2. 2001
3. 2011
4. 1981
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) 1991

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28. According to Karl Marx, what is the primary cause of population growth under capitalism?

1. Natural resources
2. Capitalist exploitation and resulting poverty
3. Technological advancement
4. Government policies
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Capitalist exploitation and resulting poverty

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29. Who suggested the formula related to population:

$$M = \frac{A - O}{O}$$

1. Sauvy
2. Ricardo
3. Dalton
4. Cloud
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Dalton

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30. Which of the following are parts of the demographic transition concept of Thompson and Notestein?

A. Descriptive
B. Predictive
C. Theoretical
D. Applied

1. D only
2. A and C only
3. A, B and C
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) A, B and C

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31. Which of the following are sub-schemes of Mission Shakti?

A. Sambal
B. Sarthak
C. Samarthya
D. Sewa

1. A and C
2. only A
3. A, B and C
4. B and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) A and C

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32. National Family Health Survey-5 was completed during:

1. 2021–2024
2. 2017–2020
3. 2019–2021
4. 2015–2017
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) 2019–2021

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33. Which is not a type of depression-site town?

1. Nest-like
2. Gap-route
3. Spur
4. Trough-like
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Gap-route

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34. Which statement is not related to the Concentric Zone Model?

1. CBD is the innermost zone
2. Zone of transition has high-class residences
3. Commuter zone is the outermost zone
4. Zone three has working-class houses
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Zone of transition has high-class residences

Explanation:
The transition zone usually contains slums and deteriorating housing.

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35. Which stage of Demographic Transition Model is characterized by high birth rate and high death rate?

1. Early Expanding
2. High Stationary
3. Low Stationary
4. Declining
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) High Stationary

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36. Characteristics of Rural-Urban Fringe are:

A. Segregation
B. Selective immigration
C. Rapid population growth
D. Rapid land-use change

1. only A and C
2. only B and D
3. only A, B and C
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) A, B, C and D

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37. Which is not a process of development of urban morphology?

1. Histogenesis
2. Patternogenesis
3. Photosynthesis
4. Morphogenesis
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Photosynthesis

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38. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Rural-Urban Fringe:

1. Market farming is practiced
2. Mixed land use is observed
3. Planned development is generally seen
4. Large population are daily commuters
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Planned development is generally seen

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39. In the Multiple Nuclei Theory, the 5th sector is related to:

1. Middle-class residence
2. High-class residence
3. Heavy industrial region
4. Outlying business region
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Heavy industrial region

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40. In which Census of India was the term “Standard Urban Area” first used?

1. 1961
2. 1971
3. 1981
4. 1991
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) 1971

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41. Which is not correctly matched?

1. River bank — Meander towns
2. Plateau — Pass towns
3. Mountain — Piedmont towns
4. Desert — Oasis towns
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Plateau — Pass towns

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42. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
A. City Region	i. Andre Alix
B. Urban Field	ii. Northam
C. Umland	iii. Smailes
D. Nodal Region	iv. Dickinson-Harris

Correct Match:

• A → iv
• B → ii
• C → i
• D → iii

Answer: (2) iv ii i iii

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43. Which of the following stages were suggested by Griffith Taylor?

A. Senile stage
B. Conurbation stage
C. Rurban stage
D. Mature stage

1. only one
2. only two
3. only three
4. All four
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) All four

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44. Choose the incorrect assumption of Christaller’s Central Place Theory:

1. Uniform region
2. Uniform population distribution
3. Consumer behaviour based on choice
4. Transport cost proportional to distance in all directions
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Consumer behaviour based on choice

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45. Who is the author of the book Economics of Location?

1. J. Clark
2. G.K. Zipf
3. August Losch
4. Walter Christaller
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) August Losch

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46. Which theory was proposed by Philbrick regarding American cities and service centres?

1. Nested hierarchy theory
2. Central place theory
3. Market hierarchy theory
4. Break-point theory
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Nested hierarchy theory

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47. The Concentric Model of urban structure was developed by:

1. E.L. Ullman
2. Homer Hoyt
3. E.W. Burgess
4. C.D. Harris
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Ernest W. Burgess

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48. If the primate city’s rank order is 1, then the rank order value of the 8th city will be:

1. 0.50
2. 0.25
3. 0.125
4. 0.80
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) 0.125

Explanation:
Using Rank-Size Rule:

$$\frac{1}{8} = 0.125$$

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49. “Social Geography is the analysis of social phenomena in space.” Which geographers are associated with this definition?

A. R.J. Johnston
B. D. Gregory
C. A.N. Clark
D. D.M. Smith

1. only A
2. A and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) A, B and D

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50. Which is not a type of social conjunctive interaction?

1. Cooperation
2. Accommodation
3. Assimilation
4. Competition
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Competition

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51. Which tribe is associated with pastoral nomadism?

A. Masai
B. Palian
C. Pintupi
D. Semang

1. A and D
2. A and B
3. B and D
4. A only
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) A only

Explanation:
Maasai are famous pastoral nomads.

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52. In which sub-theme of Social Geography are “patterns of relations” mainly studied?

1. Social structure
2. Social process
3. Social justice
4. Social behaviour
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Social structure

53. Which type of diffusion is shown in the diagram?

1. Cascading diffusion
2. Relocation diffusion
3. Horizontal diffusion
4. Contact diffusion
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Cascading diffusion

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54. According to Drewnoski, once a certain level of affluence is attained, the need satisfaction curve:

1. Flattens
2. Goes downward rapidly
3. Goes downward
4. Goes upward very slowly
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Flattens

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55. What is common in an ethnic group?

A. Religion
B. Language
C. Customs
D. Moral law

1. only A and B
2. only A, B and C
3. only B, C and D
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) A, B, C and D

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56. Which is not included in the cultural process?

1. Diffusion
2. Acculturation
3. Assimilation
4. Succession
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Succession

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57. According to O.M. Broek and John W. Webb, which is a major cultural realm of the world?

1. Southern Pacific
2. Meso-Africa
3. Indic
4. South-East Asia
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Indic

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58. Which cultural region is not part of the Southern European Cultural Realm?

1. Greece
2. Turkey
3. Italy
4. Iberian Peninsula
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Turkey

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59. In which tribal theory has the term “Tribal Pluralism” been used?

1. Integration Perspective
2. Stratification Perspective
3. Ethnographic Perspective
4. Historical Perspective
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Stratification Perspective

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60. Which are examples of ethnic religions?

A. Hindu
B. Shinto
C. Chinese
D. Tribal
E. Buddhism

1. only D
2. only E
3. A, B and C
4. D and E
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) A, B and C

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61. Regarding Critical Race Theory:

A. Race is socially constructed, not biologically natural.
B. Racism is inherent in U.S. law.
C. First annual workshop on CRT was organized in 1979.

1. Only B is correct
2. A and B are correct
3. B and C are correct
4. A, B and C are correct
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) A, B and C are correct

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62. Who used the term “Cultural Lag”?

1. William F. Ogburn
2. Max Weber
3. Georg Simmel
4. Karl Marx
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) William F. Ogburn

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63. “Political geography is the study of political regions as features of the earth’s surface.” Who gave this definition?

1. A.E. Moodie
2. S.B. Cohen
3. Richard Muir
4. Lewis M. Alexander
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) A.E. Moodie

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64. Which are internal factors of social change?

A. Legislation
B. Reform movements
C. Foreign powers
D. Education

1. A, B and D
2. B, C and D
3. C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) A, B and D

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65. How many of the following scholars presented global strategic views?

A. H.J. Mackinder
B. A.T. Mahan
C. N.J.G. Pounds
D. D.J.M. Hooson

1. only one
2. only two
3. only three
4. All four
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) only three

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66. Correctly matched pairs:

A. The Round World and Winning of the Peace — H.J. Mackinder
B. The Geography of Peace — A.P.D. Seversky
C. Heartland and Rimland in Eurasian History — N.J. Spykman
D. Geography and Politics in a Divided World — S.B. Cohen

1. only one
2. only two
3. only three
4. All four
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) only three

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67. Who presented the cyclic concept in development of the state?

1. Phalkenburg
2. Goblet
3. Carlson
4. Mackinder
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Phalkenburg

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68. Which is an example of an adjusted unitary state?

1. Denmark
2. Italy
3. Sweden
4. Great Britain
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Great Britain

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69. Which country has a “divided capital”?

1. Russia
2. France
3. South Africa
4. Rome
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) South Africa

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70. Changing constituency boundaries to benefit a political party is called:

1. Redistricting
2. Zoning
3. Gerrymandering
4. Referendum
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Gerrymandering

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71. The Heartland shown on the map was proposed by:

1. W.M. Meining
2. D.J.M. Hooson
3. H.J. Mackinder
4. A.P.D. Seversky
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Halford J. Mackinder

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72. The geometrical boundary between Libya and Egypt mostly follows:

1. 20° N
2. Nile River
3. 25° E
4. 35° E
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) 25° E

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73. Regarding Lakshadweep:

A. Islands are 280–480 km from Kerala coast
B. Entire group is built of coral deposits
C. About 46 islands are present
D. Minicoy is the largest island of Arabian Sea with area 553 sq km

1. A and B
2. C and D
3. A, B and C
4. B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) A, B and C

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74. Garhjat Hills and Dandakaranya belong to which physiographic region?

1. Karnataka Plateau
2. Telangana Plateau
3. Maharashtra Plateau
4. Chota Nagpur Plateau
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Chota Nagpur Plateau

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75. Normal onset date of Southwest Monsoon at Nagpur, Bhopal and Patna:

1. 5–10 June
2. 10–15 June
3. 15–20 June
4. After 20 June
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) 10–15 June

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76. Recently the UK handed over sovereignty of Chagos Islands to:

1. Indonesia
2. India
3. USA
4. Mauritius
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Mauritius

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77. Chitravathi and Papagni are tributaries of:

1. Tapi
2. Krishna
3. Pennar
4. Brahmani
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Pennar

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78. Correct statements regarding Indus river system:

A. Ravi flows between Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar
B. Beas is the only Indus river flowing entirely in India
C. Chenab originates from Ladakh range
D. Jhelum originates from Verinag

1. A, B and D
2. A, B, C and D
3. A and D
4. Only B
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) A, B and D

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79. Match Köppen climate type:

A. Cwg — Coromandel Coast
B. Amw — Western Ghat
C. Dfc — Arunachal Pradesh

1. Only A
2. A and B
3. A and C
4. Only C
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) A and B

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80. Arrange hill ranges North to South:

A. Palkonda
B. Nallamalai
C. Javadi
D. Shivaroy

1. B-A-C-D
2. C-A-B-D
3. A-B-C-D
4. A-D-B-C
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) B-A-C-D

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81. Assertion-Reason:

Assertion: Southern India lies in a low seismic zone.
Reason: It was part of Gondwanaland.

1. Both true and reason explains assertion
2. Both true but reason does not explain
3. Assertion true, reason false
4. Assertion false, reason true
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Both true and reason explains assertion

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82. Superior long staple cottons grown in India:

A. Varalaxmi
B. C-Island
C. Devraj
D. Kalagin

1. only A and B
2. only C and D
3. A, B and C
4. B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) only A and B

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83. Traditional area of tank irrigation with highest number of tanks:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Telangana
4. Odisha
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Tamil Nadu

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84. Kalahandi, Koraput, Shimoga and Guntur are mining centres of:

1. Iron ore
2. Copper
3. Manganese
4. Bauxite
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Bauxite

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85. Incorrect statement about Black Soil:

1. Deficient in nitrogen and phosphate
2. Rich in iron and aluminium
3. Black soils are azonal
4. Formed from basalt rocks
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Black soils are azonal

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86. Match Hydroelectric Projects:

Project	State
Sivasamudram	Karnataka
Ranjit Sagar	Punjab-Haryana
Koteshwar	Uttarakhand
Ukai	Gujarat

Answer: (2) i ii iv iii

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87. False statement about Tropical Evergreen Forest:

1. Rainfall above 200 cm
2. Dense and layered forest
3. Average temperature 16°–21°C
4. Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany are main trees
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Average temperature 16°–21°C

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88. Criteria used by Planning Commission for 15 agro-climatic regions:

1. Rainfall, cropping pattern, water resources
2. Rainfall, soil type, cropping pattern
3. Soil type, rainfall, temperature, water resources
4. Rainfall, soil type, water resources
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Rainfall, soil type, water resources

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89. NITI Aayog was established on:

1. 1 January 2015
2. 1 April 2015
3. 26 May 2015
4. 1 July 2015
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) 1 January 2015

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90. Highest decadal population growth rate in India (1951–2011):

1. 1971
2. 1991
3. 2001
4. 2011
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) 2001

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91. IFFCO production units are located at:

A. Kalol
B. Nagal
C. Kandla
D. Phulpur

1. A, B and C
2. only B and C
3. A, C and D
4. A, B, C and D
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) A, B, C and D

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92. Which is not correctly matched?

1. Chakmas — Tripura
2. Lepcha — Nagaland
3. Todia — Gujarat
4. Kochu — Kerala
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Lepcha — Nagaland

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93. Percentage of Western Desert without sand dunes:

1. 61.3
2. 51.2
3. 41.5
4. 28.8
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) 51.2%

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94. Arrange peaks in decreasing order of height:

A. Nagpani
B. Kamalnath
C. Sajjangarh
D. Babai

1. D-C-B-A
2. B-C-D-A
3. B-C-A-D
4. D-B-C-A
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) B-C-A-D

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95. Which Indian state has the largest length of navigable inland waterways?

1. Bihar
2. West Bengal
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) West Bengal

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96. River shown in Rajasthan map:

1. Kali Sindh
2. Parbati
3. Mej
4. Parvan
5. Question not attempted

Answer: Depends on map provided.

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97. Match Soil and District:

Soil	District
Reverina	Ganganagar
Red Loam	Dungarpur
Gypsiferrous	Bikaner
Deep Medium Black Soil	Jhalawar

Answer: (4) iv i iii ii

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98. Rajasthan districts receiving 75–110 cm rainfall:

1. Kota, Jhalawar, Bhilwara, Tonk
2. Banswara, Pratapgarh, Kota, Baran
3. Dungarpur, Bundi, Rajsamand, Ajmer
4. Sirohi, Udaipur, Jaipur, Alwar
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Banswara, Pratapgarh, Kota, Baran

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99. North to South order of tributaries of Luni:

A. Jawai
B. Bandi
C. Sukri
D. Guhia

1. C-B-A-D
2. D-B-C-A
3. A-B-C-D
4. D-C-B-A
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) D-C-B-A

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100. Climatic region shown in Rajasthan map as per Trewartha classification:

1. Bwh
2. Bsh
3. Caw
4. Aw
5. Question not attempted

Answer: Depends on map provided.

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101. Match Lakes and Districts:

Lake	District
Narain Sagar	Ajmer
Phool Sagar	Bundi
Swaroop Sagar	Udaipur
Balsamand	Jodhpur

Answer: (2) iv iii i ii

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102. Rajasthan Agro-Climatic Region:

• Area: 2.10 million ha
• Rainfall: 100–350 mm
• Rabi: Wheat, mustard, gram
• Kharif: Cotton, guar

1. Irrigated North-Western Plain
2. Flood Prone Eastern Plain
3. Humid Southern Plain
4. Sub-Humid Southern Plain
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (1) Irrigated North-Western Plain

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103. Which livestock did NOT show negative growth in 20th Livestock Census 2019?

1. Pig
2. Camel
3. Goat
4. Cattle
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (3) Goat

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104. Which is not a Hindustan Copper Limited project centre in Rajasthan?

1. Dariba Copper Project, Alwar
2. Rajasthan Copper Project, Bhiwadi
3. Khetri Copper Complex, Khetri
4. Chandmari Copper Project, Jhunjhunu
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (2) Rajasthan Copper Project, Bhiwadi

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105. Jalipa-Kapurdi Thermal Power Plant is located in:

1. Bikaner
2. Churu
3. Jodhpur
4. Barmer
5. Question not attempted

Answer: (4) Barmer

106. 106. Which of the following districts has a population decadal growth rate lesser than Rajasthan's growth rate as per Census 2011?

     (1) Bikaner

     (2) Dungarpur

     (3) Churu

     (4) Pratapgarh

     Answer: (3)

     107. Which district of Rajasthan has the minimum percentage decadal change in female rural population during 2001 – 2011?

     (1) Sikar

     (2) Kota

     (3) Jhunjhunu

     (4) Ganganagar

     Answer: (4)

     108. Among the following, which is NOT a geo-heritage site of tourism in Rajasthan as per the Geological Survey of India?

     (1) Great Boundary Fault, Satur

     (2) Jawar

     (3) Makrana

     (4) Akal Wood Fossil Park

     Answer: (2)

     109. Arrange the following wildlife sanctuaries of Rajasthan in the correct order from South to North:

     (1) Jawahar Sagar, Jamwa Ramgarh, Ramsagar, Sawai Man Singh

     (2) Jawahar Sagar, Jamwa Ramgarh, Sawai Man Singh, Ramsagar

     (3) Jawahar Sagar, Sawai Man Singh, Jamwa Ramgarh, Ramsagar

     (4) Ramsagar, Sawai Man Singh, Jawahar Sagar, Jamwa Ramgarh

     Answer: (3)

     110. Which of the following is a correct match regarding Textile Parks?

     (1) The Next Gen Textile Park — Sirohi

     (2) Kishangarh Hi-tech Textile Park — Udaipur

     (3) Jaipur Integrated Texcraft Park — Dausa

     (4) Jaipur Tex-Weaving Park — Ajmer

     Answer: (4)

     111. Which of the following is NOT a correct match for Conservation Reserves?

     (1) Badakheda — Sirohi

     (2) Mahasir — Rajsamand

     (3) Ashop — Bhilwara

     (4) Rankhar — Jalore

     Answer: (3)

     112. Identify the correct order of the dams built on the Chambal River from its mouth to its source:

     (1) Jawahar Sagar, Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar

     (2) Rana Pratap Sagar, Jawahar Sagar, Gandhi Sagar

     (3) Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Jawahar Sagar

     (4) Jawahar Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar

     Answer: (4)

     113. Which of the following petroleum mining areas is NOT in Jaisalmer district?

     (1) Manohar Tibba

     (2) Dandewal

     (3) Bhagya Shakti

     (4) Bakariwala

     Answer: (3)

     114. Which of the following is NOT a perennial resource?

     (1) Solar energy

     (2) Ocean water

     (3) Natural gas

     (4) Macro regional climate

     Answer: (3)

     115. Based on the statements (Evergreen forest, single species in large areas, soft wood), identify the forest type:

     (1) Tropical rain forest

     (2) Boreal forest

     (3) Mediterranean forest

     (4) Tropical deciduous forest

     Answer: (2)

     116. The production of information comes under which type of economic activity?

     (1) Primary

     (2) Secondary

     (3) Tertiary

     (4) Quaternary

     Answer: (4)

     117. In which type of economy will intersectoral interaction be highest?

     (1) Open Economy

     (2) Closed Economy

     (3) Mixed Economy

     (4) Traditional Economy

     Answer: (1)

     118. The Chuquicamata mine is famous for which mineral?

     (1) Iron ore

     (2) Copper

     (3) Mica

     (4) Bauxite

     Answer: (2)

     119. Which of the following is a cyclic resource?

     (1) Gold

     (2) Coal

     (3) Water

     (4) Forest

     Answer: (3)

     120. The word 'conservation' was coined by:

     (1) H.M. Rose

     (2) J.H. Helmond

     (3) Gifford Pinchot

     (4) Zimmermann

     Answer: (3)

116. Match the countries with oil fields:

• Saudi Arabia — Qatif
• Kuwait — Burghan
• Iraq — Kirkuk
• Iran — Haft Kel

Answer: (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

122. Which statement is not correct regarding OPEC?
     Answer: (3) Ecuador is presently a member country
123. Who wrote the first book on Agricultural Geography “Environment and Cropping Patterns in England”?
     Answer: (3) Arthur Young
124. Which statement is wrong regarding globalization?
     Answer: (1) Impact on producers and workers has been uniform
125. Initial plan of agricultural typology was made in:
     Answer: (2) Poland
126. Match List-I with List-II:

• M — Market oriented agriculture
• E — Traditional intensive agriculture
• S — Socialised agriculture
• T — Traditional extensive agriculture

Answer: (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

127. Which one is not correctly matched?
     Answer: (4) Africa — Jones
128. Which statement is not correct about crop diversification?
     Answer: (3) Increases dependence on a single cash crop
129. Correct statements regarding Whittlesey’s agricultural classification:
     Answer: (4) A, B, C and D all are correct
130. Which is correctly matched?
     Answer: (2) Caingin — Philippines
131. Assertion-Reason:
     (A) Cropping pattern never remains uniform.
     (R) Technological and economic improvement does not directly affect cropping pattern.

Answer: (3) A is true, but R is false

132. Formula for crop intensity:
     Answer: (1) Gross Cropped Area / Net Sown Area × 100
133. S. Bhatia used the given formula for measuring:
     Answer: (4) Crop diversification
134. According to Weaver’s method, theoretical percentage in a five-crop combination region is:
     Answer: (4) 20.0
135. Who first attempted to divide the USA into agricultural regions?
     Answer: (1) O.E. Baker
136. Three-field system in Von Thünen’s model is used in:
     Answer: (2) Zone II
137. Assertion-Reason regarding Green Revolution:
     Answer: (2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
138. P.F.S. Cluster analysis method is used in:
     Answer: (3) Agricultural regionalization
139. Industries remaining at original location despite loss of initial advantages is called:
     Answer: (2) Industrial inertia
140. Which industry is least affected by fuel and power?
     Answer: (1) Printing and publishing industry
141. According to Weber’s theory, the industry location for maximum profit will be:
     Answer: (2) Energy oriented location
142. Which is a footloose industry?
     Answer: (2) Automobile industry
143. Which is a correct match?
     Answer: (4) Optical glass and camera — Jena
144. According to D.M. Smith, point “O” represents:
     Answer: (1) Maximum profit at fixed price
145. Which industrial linkage is not found in cotton textile industry?
     Answer: (2) Diagonal linkage
146. Who used the “Law of Diminishing Utility” in industrial location theory?
     Answer: (3) D.M. Smith
147. Which one is not correctly matched?
     Answer: (1) Pittsburgh–Cleveland region — Wisconsin
148. Which industrial centre is situated in Japan’s Kwanto Plain region?
     Answer: (3) Kawasaki
149. SEVESO III Directive is related to:
     Answer: (1) Industrial accidents
150. Which scholar used the terms “Line and Haul Cost” and “Marginal Lines”?
     Answer: (2) Hoover