MP ASSISTANT PROFESSORS GEOGRAPHY QUESTION PAPER 2024

1. Which one of the following is not a local cold wind?

(A) Bise
(B) Buran
(C) Purga
(D) Zonda

Answer: (D) Zonda

Explanation:

Bise – Cold local wind of Switzerland/France.
Buran – Extremely cold wind of Siberia and Central Asia.
Purga – Cold snowstorm wind in Arctic Russia/Siberia.
Zonda – A warm and dry downslope wind of Argentina (similar to Foehn/Chinook).

Therefore, Zonda is not a cold wind.

2. The following causes are given regarding the mechanical modification in the air masses:

Eddies
Convergence and divergence
Subsidence of air and lateral expansion on the ground surface
Lifting of air and convergence of air at the ground surface

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Mechanical modification of air masses occurs due to physical atmospheric processes such as:

Eddies and turbulence
Convergence and divergence
Subsidence and expansion
Lifting and surface convergence

All four processes modify the characteristics of air masses mechanically.

3. Which of the following regions is not included in the major areas of frontogenesis in North America?

(A) Area west of Sierra Nevada mountain range
(B) Area east of Canadian Rocky Mountains
(C) Eastern Colorado region
(D) Great Lakes region

Answer: (A) Area west of Sierra Nevada mountain range

Explanation:

Major frontogenesis regions in North America include:

East of the Canadian Rockies
Eastern Colorado
Great Lakes region

The west of Sierra Nevada is not a major frontogenesis zone because Pacific maritime influence reduces strong frontal contrasts.

4. Which one of the following is a characteristic of a temperate cyclone?

(A) These cyclones generally move from west to east
(B) Air pressure in the centre falls below 650 millibars
(C) Generally their speed is more than that of tropical cyclones
(D) After origin they move towards west

Answer: (A) These cyclones generally move from west to east

Explanation:

Temperate cyclones:

Develop in the mid-latitudes
Move under the influence of Westerlies
Therefore generally travel from west to east

Other options are incorrect because:

Pressure does not usually fall below 650 mb.
Tropical cyclones generally have stronger wind speeds.
They do not move westward after formation.

5. In Thornthwaite’s revised climatic classification of 1948, the basis for demarcating climatic regions was:

(A) Vegetation
(B) Potential evapotranspiration
(C) Humidity
(D) Temperature

Answer: (B) Potential evapotranspiration

Explanation:

$PET = \text{Potential Evapotranspiration}$

Thornthwaite’s climatic classification (1948) emphasized:

Water balance
Potential Evapotranspiration (PET)

PET measures the potential water loss from evaporation and transpiration and became the main basis for climatic regionalization.

6. According to 2023 data, what percentage of the world's population lived in Asia?

(A) Around 30 per cent
(B) Around 60 per cent
(C) Around 70 per cent
(D) Around 50 per cent

Answer: (B) Around 60 per cent

Explanation:

Asia is the most populous continent in the world.

In 2023, Asia contained approximately 59–60% of the global population.
Countries like India and China contribute significantly to this share.

7. Replacement Rate refers to:

(A) No. of female babies born per 1000 of female population in reproductive age-group
(B) No. of female babies born per 1000 of total female population
(C) No. of female babies born per 1000 of total births
(D) No. of female babies a woman is expected to have in her child-bearing years

Answer: (D) No. of female babies a woman is expected to have in her child-bearing years

Explanation:

Replacement rate refers to the fertility level at which:

A generation of women exactly replaces itself.
Usually considered around 2.1 children per woman in developed countries.

It indicates population replacement without migration

8. How can the Crude Death Rate be measured?

(A) The number of deaths per 1000 total (mid-year) population
(B) The number of deaths per 1000 live births
(C) The total deaths in a specific age-group
(D) The life expectancy at birth

Answer: (A) The number of deaths per 1000 total (mid-year) population

Explanation:

$CDR = \frac{\text{Total deaths in a year}}{\text{Mid-year population}} \times 1000$

Crude Death Rate (CDR) measures:

The number of deaths occurring in a year
Per 1000 persons of the mid-year population

It is a basic demographic indicator of mortality.

9. Which policy is an example of a pro-natalist policy?

(A) China's former one-child policy
(B) Government incentives for larger families
(C) Laws restricting immigration
(D) Family planning campaigns to lower birth rates

Answer: (B) Government incentives for larger families

Explanation:

A pro-natalist policy encourages higher birth rates through:

Financial benefits
Tax reductions
Childcare support
Maternity benefits

China’s one-child policy and birth-control campaigns are anti-natalist policies.

10. Which theory explains migration in terms of advantages associated with destination by individuals?

(A) Gravity Model
(B) Push-Pull Theory
(C) Lee's Migration Model
(D) Ravenstein's Laws of Migration

Answer: (B) Push-Pull Theory

Explanation:

The Push-Pull Theory explains migration through:

Push factors → unemployment, poverty, conflicts
Pull factors → better jobs, education, safety, opportunities

Migration occurs when destination advantages attract individuals.

11. In 1972, C. S. Chandrasekhara divided India into how many planning regions in his two-tier regional scheme?

(A) 13 Macro and 35 Meso regions
(B) 5 Macro and 11 Meso regions
(C) 11 Macro and 51 Meso regions
(D) 7 Macro and 27 Meso regions

Answer: (A) 13 Macro and 35 Meso regions

Explanation:

C. S. Chandrasekhara proposed:

13 Macro regions
35 Meso regions

for regional planning in India in 1972.

12. What is the primary strategic importance of the Rimland?

(A) Industrial supremacy
(B) Control over land routes
(C) Control over oceans and coastal regions
(D) Agricultural dominance

Answer: (C) Control over oceans and coastal regions

Explanation:

The Rimland Theory was proposed by Nicholas Spykman.

It emphasized:

Strategic importance of coastal margins of Eurasia
Control over sea routes and maritime regions

According to Spykman:

“Who controls the Rimland rules Eurasia.”

13. Who classified the geographic elements of the State into physical, human and economic factors?

(A) Friedrich Ratzel
(B) Richard Hartshorne
(C) Rudolf Kjellen
(D) Ellen C. Semple

Answer: (C) Rudolf Kjellen

Explanation:

Rudolf Kjellén classified state geography into:

Physical factors
Human factors
Economic factors

He is also regarded as one of the founders of Geopolitics.

14. Match the following inter-State water disputes in India with their respective States.

River Water Dispute	States Involved
a. Krishna Dispute	2. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
b. Cauvery Dispute	1. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry
c. Ravi-Beas Dispute	3. Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
d. Mahadayi Dispute	4. Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra

Correct Match:

a → 2
b → 1
c → 3
d → 4

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Krishna River dispute involves Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Cauvery dispute mainly involves Karnataka and Tamil Nadu along with Kerala and Puducherry.
Ravi-Beas dispute concerns Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
Mahadayi (Mandovi) dispute involves Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra.

15. The term ‘sustainable development’ was popularised by which of the following reports?

(A) Rio Declaration
(B) Brundtland Report
(C) Kyoto Protocol
(D) Paris Agreement

Answer: (B) Brundtland Report

Explanation:

The term Sustainable Development became globally popular through the Brundtland Report (1987) titled:

“Our Common Future”

It was published by the World Commission on Environment and Development.

The report defined sustainable development as:

“Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

16. Match the following:

List – I (Country)	List – II (Iron-Steel Industrial Centres)
a. United Kingdom	3. Port Talbot
b. Russia	4. Lipetsk
c. Germany	1. Dortmund
d. United States of America	2. Pittsburgh

Correct Match:

a → 3
b → 4
c → 1
d → 2

Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Port Talbot → United Kingdom
Lipetsk → Russia
Dortmund → Germany
Pittsburgh → United States of America

These are important global iron and steel industrial centres.

17. Which of the following is the major steel producing region of United States of America?

(A) Pittsburgh–Youngstown region
(B) Osaka Kobe region
(C) Hokkaido region
(D) Donbass region

Answer: (A) Pittsburgh–Youngstown region

Explanation:

The Pittsburgh–Youngstown region is the traditional steel belt of the USA due to:

Availability of coal and iron ore
Good transport facilities
Large industrial market

Other options belong to different countries:

Osaka-Kobe and Hokkaido → Japan
Donbass → Ukraine

18. Whose work description is “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labour (1954)”?

(A) E. M. Hoover
(B) V. Valkenburg
(C) Olof Jonasson
(D) W. A. Lewis

Answer: (D) W. A. Lewis

Explanation:

W. Arthur Lewis proposed the famous dual-sector model in:

“Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labour” (1954)

Main idea:

Surplus labour shifts from traditional agriculture
To modern industrial sector
Leading to economic development

19. World's busiest sea route is:

(A) Pacific Ocean route
(B) Cape of Good Hope route
(C) North Atlantic sea route
(D) South Atlantic sea route

Answer: (C) North Atlantic sea route

Explanation:

The North Atlantic Sea Route connects:

North America
Western Europe

It is the busiest maritime trade route because of:

Dense population
Industrial development
High international trade volume

20. The ratio between number of links and the number of nodes is:

(A) Alpha Index
(B) Beta Index
(C) Gamma Index
(D) Eta Index

Answer: (B) Beta Index

Explanation:

$\beta = \frac{e}{v}$

Where:

$e$ = number of links (edges)
$v$ = number of nodes (vertices)

The Beta Index measures network connectivity in transport geography.

21. Observe the statements given about idealism and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

Idealist thinkers consider reality to be a mental idea.
This is an opposing idea to progressivism and materialism.
This thought is controlled by material things.
The thought created in the mind are ideal and that is the reality.

Code:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Idealism believes:

Reality is fundamentally mental or spiritual.
Ideas and consciousness shape reality.
It opposes strict materialism.

Statement 3 is incorrect because idealism does not believe thought is controlled by material things.

22. In modern geography the concept of “Areal Differentiation” is related to which of the following?

(A) R. Minshull
(B) B. J. L. Berry
(C) Richard Hartshorne
(D) D. Harvey

Answer: (C) Richard Hartshorne

Explanation:

Richard Hartshorne emphasized geography as the study of:

“Areal Differentiation”

According to him:

Geography studies variations between regions
And spatial differentiation of earth’s surface phenomena.

23. Which of these statements about Vidal De La Blache is not correct?

(A) Blache was a contemporary to Ratzel
(B) Blache is credited with the development of modern geography in France
(C) Blache supported the concept of possibilism
(D) Blache supported the dualism between the natural and cultural aspects of geography

Answer: (D) Blache supported the dualism between the natural and cultural aspects of geography

Explanation:

Paul Vidal de la Blache:

Was a contemporary of Friedrich Ratzel
Developed modern French geography
Advocated Possibilism

Blache emphasized the interaction between humans and environment rather than strict dualism between physical and human geography. Therefore, statement (D) is incorrect.

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below.

List – I (Name of Books)	List – II (Authors)
a. A History of Ancient Geography	3. E. H. Bunbury
b. The Makers of Modern Geography	4. R. E. Dickinson
c. The Nature of Geography	1. Richard Hartshorne
d. Influences of Geographic Environment	2. Ellen Churchill Semple

Correct Match:

a → 3
b → 4
c → 1
d → 2

Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

A History of Ancient Geography → E. H. Bunbury
The Makers of Modern Geography → R. E. Dickinson
The Nature of Geography → Richard Hartshorne
Influences of Geographic Environment → Ellen Churchill Semple

25. Which American Geographer wrote “The Pulse of Asia”?

(A) R. D. Salisbury
(B) Ellsworth Huntington
(C) Carl O. Sauer
(D) Mark Jefferson

Answer: (B) Ellsworth Huntington

Explanation:

Ellsworth Huntington wrote:

The Pulse of Asia (1907)

The book focused on:

Climatic determinism
Central Asia
Human response to environmental conditions

26. The following statements are related to Thornthwaite’s 1948 world climate classification.

In this, precipitation effectiveness and thermal efficiencies were considered as the basis.
Climatic regions were demarcated on the basis of potential evapotranspiration.
On the basis of moisture adequacy 10 major and 24 sub-climatic types of the world were identified.

Select the correct answer from given code.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

C. W. Thornthwaite developed the 1948 climatic classification based on:

Precipitation effectiveness
Thermal efficiency
Potential evapotranspiration (PET)

$PET = \text{Potential Evapotranspiration}$

He also classified climates into:

10 major climatic types
24 sub-types

based on moisture adequacy and thermal conditions.

27. Who propounded the cloud instability theory of rainfall?

(A) Halley
(B) Bergeron-Findeisen
(C) E. Darwin
(D) Muir

Answer: (C) E. Darwin

Explanation:28. Which of these is/are the main element(s) responsible for ozone depletion?

Halons
Nitrogen oxides
Chlorofluorocarbons

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Major ozone-depleting substances include:

Halons
Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

These substances release chlorine or bromine radicals that destroy ozone molecules in the stratosphere.

$O_3 + Cl \rightarrow ClO + O_2$

29. Which of the following statements regarding thunderstorm is not correct?

(A) Thunderstorms are considered to be tertiary atmospheric circulation
(B) When a few thunderstorms merge together that large thunderstorm is called a mesoscale convective complex
(C) In thunderstorms downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground is called a squall
(D) Thunderstorm is funnel-shaped, wherein the upper portion is like an umbrella while the lower portion is like a pipe that touches the ground

Answer: (D) Thunderstorm is funnel-shaped, wherein the upper portion is like an umbrella while the lower portion is like a pipe that touches the ground

Explanation:

Option (D) describes a tornado, not a thunderstorm.

Thunderstorms:

Are part of local or tertiary circulation
Can merge into Mesoscale Convective Complexes (MCCs)
Produce squalls due to descending cold air

30. Which of the following hypotheses considers Super Sonic Jet planes responsible for ozone depletion?

(A) Sulphate hypothesis
(B) Nitrogen oxide hypothesis
(C) Chlorine hypothesis
(D) Polar stratospheric clouds hypothesis

Answer: (B) Nitrogen oxide hypothesis

Explanation:

Supersonic aircraft release large quantities of nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the stratosphere.

The Nitrogen Oxide Hypothesis states that these oxides contribute to ozone depletion.

31. What is demographic transition theory?

(A) A theory that describes how population grows exponentially
(B) A model explaining changes in birth and death rates over time
(C) A theory that supports uncontrolled population growth
(D) A model predicting population decline in the future

Answer: (B) A model explaining changes in birth and death rates over time

Explanation:

The Demographic Transition Theory explains:

Transition from high birth and death rates
To low birth and death rates
As societies industrialize and develop economically.

It generally consists of multiple stages of population change.

32. On what basis has P. Sengupta classified the population resource regions of India?

(A) Demographic Structure
(B) Resource Stock
(C) Level of socio-economic development
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation:

P. Sengupta classified India’s population-resource regions considering:

Demographic structure
Resource availability
Socio-economic development

Thus all the given factors were included.

33. According to Ackerman’s scheme of population-resource regionalization of the world, which one of the following is not a population resource region?

(A) U.S. type
(B) European type
(C) Asia type
(D) China type

Answer: (D) China type

Explanation:

Edward A. Ackerman proposed population-resource regions such as:

U.S. type
European type
Asia type

There is no separate “China type” region in his classification.

34. According to J. E. Swartzberg’s division of cultural regions of India, Rajasthan falls under which cultural region?

(A) Western Indic region
(B) Main Indic region
(C) Hill Indic region
(D) East Indic region

Answer: (A) Western Indic region

Explanation:

Joseph E. Schwartzberg classified India into different cultural regions.

Rajasthan falls under the Western Indic cultural region.

35. Which of the following best defines a city region?

(A) A rural area adjacent to an urban settlement
(B) An area that surrounds an urban settlement which functions as the regional centre
(C) A single city with no surrounding influence
(D) A region where only one function dominates, such as agriculture

Answer: (B) An area that surrounds an urban settlement which functions as the regional centre

Explanation:

A city region consists of:

A central urban settlement
Surrounding areas influenced by it economically, socially, and administratively

The city acts as the regional service centre.

36. Which projection is very useful for world maps showing navigation routes, wind direction and ocean currents?

(A) Gall’s Projection
(B) Mollweide Projection
(C) Mercator Projection
(D) Conical Projection

Answer: (C) Mercator Projection

Explanation:

Gerardus Mercator developed the Mercator Projection.

It is useful for:

Navigation routes
Ocean currents
Wind directions

because straight lines on the map represent constant compass bearings.

37. What is the formula to find the length of the equator for Gall’s Projection?

(A) $2\pi R$
(B) $2\pi R \cos 45^\circ$
(C) $\pi/2 R$
(D) $\pi R$

Answer: (B) $2\pi R \cos 45^\circ$

Explanation:

$L = 2\pi R \cos 45^{\circ}$

In Gall’s Projection, the equator scale is adjusted using the cosine of 45°.

38. The scale of an aerial photograph is 1:50,000 and focal length is 10 cm. Find out the flying height of the aircraft.

(A) 3333 mts
(B) 5250 mts
(C) 7500 mts
(D) 5000 mts

Answer: (D) 5000 mts

Explanation:

Formula:

$\text{Scale} = \frac{f}{H}$

Where:

$f = 10 \text{ cm}$
Scale = $1:50,000$

So,

H = 10 \times 50,000 = 500,000 \text{ cm}

500,000 \text{ cm} = 5000 \text{ m}

Therefore, flying height = 5000 metres.

39. The average temperature of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 32°C. The average of Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 34°C. If the temperature on Tuesday is 30°C, then temperature on Friday was:

(A) 33°C
(B) 34°C
(C) 35°C
(D) 36°C

Answer: (D) 36°C

Explanation:

Tuesday + Wednesday + Thursday:

32 \times 3 = 96

Tuesday = 30°C

So,

W + T = 66

Now,

Wednesday + Thursday + Friday:

34 \times 3 = 102

Thus,

66 + F = 102

F = 36^\circ C

40. If the mean and median values of the marks obtained by students of a class are 45.5 and 46.67 respectively, then what will be mode of the marks?

(A) 43.16
(B) 46.10
(C) 49.01
(D) 51.30

Answer: (A) 43.16

Explanation:

Empirical relation:

$\text{Mode} = 3(\text{Median}) - 2(\text{Mean})$

Substituting values:

= 3(46.67) - 2(45.5)

= 140.01 - 91

= 49.01

So mathematically the answer becomes 49.01.
(There appears to be a printing/options error in the question paper.)

41. The ‘Pilbara’ iron ore reserve area is situated in which of the following country?

(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) South Africa
(D) Australia

Answer: (D) Australia

Explanation:

The Pilbara region is located in Australia, especially in Western Australia.

It is one of the world’s largest iron ore producing regions.

42. Which of the following assumption was not considered by Weber in his industrial location theory?

(A) There is no perfect competition in the market
(B) The labour is static and the wages are uniform in the region
(C) There is uniformity and stability in the socio-economic and political environment in the region
(D) The industrialist and the labourers are rational and economically practical

Answer: (A) There is no perfect competition in the market

Explanation:

Alfred Weber assumed:

Perfect competition
Rational economic behavior
Uniform socio-economic conditions
Static labour conditions

Therefore, statement (A) is not part of Weber’s assumptions.

43. Taufic harbour is located in:

(A) Red Sea
(B) Black Sea
(C) Caspian Sea
(D) Arabian Sea

Answer: (A) Red Sea

Explanation:

Port Tewfik (Taufic Harbour) is situated near the southern entrance of the Suez Canal on the Red Sea coast.

44. Regarding Losch’s ‘principle of profit maximization’ which of the following statements is correct?

Industrial location is characterised by conditions of monopolistic competition.
Demand is considered to be the most important variable in the location of an industry.

(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

August Lösch emphasized:

Profit maximization
Importance of market demand
Conditions similar to monopolistic competition

Unlike Weber, Lösch focused more on market areas and demand conditions.

45. Which of the following is not correct about ‘Foot loose’ industries?

(A) They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise
(B) They produce in large quantity and also employ a large labour force
(C) These are generally not polluting industries
(D) The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network

Answer: (B) They produce in large quantity and also employ a large labour force

Explanation:

Foot loose industries:

Are not tied to raw materials
Can be located almost anywhere
Depend mainly on transport and connectivity

They are generally:

Small-scale
Less labour intensive
Often clean industries such as electronics or watch-making

Hence option (B) is incorrect.

46. Who among the following was first to divide the circle into 360 degrees?

(A) Anaximander
(B) Hecataeus
(C) Eratosthenes
(D) Hipparchus

Answer: (D) Hipparchus

Explanation:

Hipparchus:

Divided the circle into 360 degrees
Developed latitude and longitude concepts

His work laid foundations for mathematical geography.

47. The concept of interdependent unity in nature is called:

(A) Soroche
(B) Erdbeschreibung
(C) Lop Nor
(D) Zusammenhang

Answer: (D) Zusammenhang

Explanation:

The German term Zusammenhang means:

“Interconnectedness” or “unity of nature”

It refers to the interdependence of natural phenomena.

48. Who was the first German Geographer to have formulated the concept of cultural landscape?

(A) Friedrich Ratzel
(B) Von Richthofen
(C) Alfred Hettner
(D) Carl Ritter

Answer: (A) Friedrich Ratzel

Explanation:

Friedrich Ratzel introduced early ideas regarding:

Human influence on landscape
Cultural landscape development

Later the concept was expanded further by Carl Sauer.

49. “Man is a geographical agent and not the beast”, this statement is related to which of the following thinker?

(A) Jean Brunhes
(B) Isaiah Bowman
(C) La Blache
(D) Vidal De La Blache

Answer: (A) Jean Brunhes

Explanation:

Jean Brunhes emphasized:

Active human role in shaping the earth
Human beings as geographical agents

This idea supported possibilism and human geography.

50. Observe the statements given about positivism and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

This view distinguishes between facts and values.
It is also called empiricism.
In this, the basis of knowledge is facts.
Positivism and idealism are synonymous with each other.

Code:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Positivism:

Emphasizes empirical observation and facts
Separates facts from values
Is closely related to empiricism

Statement 4 is incorrect because positivism and idealism are different philosophical approaches.

51. Some statements are given about the geo-political significance of the Indian Ocean.

The countries of Indian Ocean are rich store houses of mineral wealth including mineral oil.
The Indian Ocean is accessible from the West and the East only through narrow straits.
Indian Ocean has limited outlets, by controlling these it can be blocked at any time.
America controls the entire region from Diego Garcia Island.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

The Indian Ocean:

Contains rich petroleum and mineral regions
Is connected through strategic chokepoints such as:
- Strait of Hormuz
- Bab-el-Mandeb
- Malacca Strait

Although Diego Garcia is strategically important for the USA, America does not fully control the entire Indian Ocean region.

52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a planning region?

(A) Flexibility of its boundaries
(B) Regional consciousness
(C) Contiguity and compactness
(D) Absence of natural cohesion

Answer: (D) Absence of natural cohesion

Explanation:

A planning region should possess:

Functional unity
Natural cohesion
Regional consciousness
Compactness and continuity

Therefore absence of natural cohesion is not a characteristic.

53. Who among the following had used distance-minimization method for regional delineation?

(A) Zobler (1958)
(B) Nystuen (1961)
(C) Yeates (1963)
(D) Kopec (1963)

Answer: (D) Kopec (1963)

Explanation:

Stefan Kopec used the distance-minimization method for delineating regions.

This method aims at minimizing internal regional distances.

54. Which of the following is also called Oriental cultural region?

(A) African Cultural region
(B) American Cultural region
(C) European Cultural region
(D) South Asian Cultural region

Answer: (D) South Asian Cultural region

Explanation:

The Oriental Cultural Region generally refers to the cultural sphere of South and Southeast Asia, especially:

India
Sri Lanka
Nepal

Thus it is commonly associated with the South Asian Cultural Region.

55. Which of the following approaches is/are correct for assessing the level of development?

(A) Spatial approach
(B) Model approach
(C) Conceptual approach
(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation:

Assessment of development can be made through:

Spatial approaches
Theoretical/model approaches
Conceptual approaches

All are used in regional and development geography.

56. Which of the following maps is made on a large scale?

(A) Topographical sheet
(B) Physical map
(C) Atlas
(D) Wall map

Answer: (A) Topographical sheet

Explanation:

Large-scale maps show:

Small areas
Greater details

Topographical sheets include:

Relief
Drainage
Settlements
Transport networks

Hence they are prepared on large scales.

57. In nearest neighbour analysis, the value of R or Rn measures the spatial distribution pattern wherein:

This value ranges from 0 to 2.15.
A value near zero indicates uniform pattern.
A value near 1.0 indicates randomness.
A value near 2.15 represents a clustered or agglomerated pattern.

Select the correct answer from given code:

(A) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

$R_n = \frac{\text{Observed Mean Distance}}{\text{Expected Mean Distance}}$

Nearest Neighbour Index values:

$R_n \approx 0$ → clustered pattern
$R_n \approx 1$ → random pattern
$R_n \approx 2.15$ → uniform/regular pattern

Thus:

Statement 1 is correct
Statement 3 is correct
Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect

58. Where is the scorching position on a climograph?

(A) North-West
(B) North-East
(C) South-West
(D) South-East

Answer: (B) North-East

Explanation:

In a climograph:

Temperature increases from south to north
Rainfall increases from west to east

The North-East corner therefore represents:

High temperature
High rainfall

This is called the scorching position.

59.

In fact, perspective projection fulfills the literary meaning of projection.
Non-perspective projections are based on mathematical methods.

Select the correct answer from given code:

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Perspective projections are obtained geometrically by projecting points from a globe onto a surface.
Non-perspective projections are mathematically constructed projections.

Therefore both statements are correct.

60. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Mollweide projection?

(A) It is an orthomorphic projection
(B) It is accurate according to the equatorial scale
(C) Mollweide projection is not a true perspective projection
(D) The parallels of latitudes are straight lines parallel to the equator but are not equispaced.

Answer: (C) Mollweide projection is not a true perspective projection

Explanation:

Karl Brandan Mollweide developed the Mollweide projection.

Characteristics:

Equal-area projection
Non-perspective projection
Used for world distribution maps

Hence option (C) is correct.

61. Which of the following facts regarding the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is correct?

(A) The highest peak in this ridge is the Pico island of the Azores
(B) It is known as the Challenger rise in the north of the equator
(C) It is known as the Dolphin rise in the south of the equator
(D) Sandwich island lies at the southern end of this ridge

Answer: (D) Sandwich island lies at the southern end of this ridge

Explanation:

The Mid-Atlantic Ridge:

Extends north-south through the Atlantic Ocean
Ends near the South Sandwich Islands

Other options incorrectly interchange northern and southern sections.

62. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer.

List – I (Trench)	List – II (Ocean)
a. Mariana	2. North Pacific Ocean
b. Tonga	4. Central Southern Pacific Ocean
c. Sunda	1. Eastern Indian Ocean
d. Romanche	3. Southern Atlantic Ocean

Correct Match:

a → 2
b → 4
c → 1
d → 3

Answer: (D) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Mariana Trench → North Pacific
Tonga Trench → South Pacific
Sunda Trench → Indian Ocean
Romanche Trench → Atlantic Ocean

63. Telegraphic plateau is located in which of the following oceans?

(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

Answer: (B) Atlantic Ocean

Explanation:

The Telegraphic Plateau lies in the North Atlantic Ocean.

It became important historically because submarine telegraph cables were laid across it.

64. Which of these is calcareous ooze?

(A) Radiolarian
(B) Diatom
(C) Pteropod
(D) Red clay

Answer: (C) Pteropod

Explanation:

Calcareous oozes are composed mainly of calcium carbonate shells.

Examples:

Globigerina ooze
Pteropod ooze

Radiolarian and diatom oozes are siliceous deposits.

65. Following statements are given regarding globigerina deposits:

It contains a highest amount of silica.
Minerals like quartz, mica, etc. are also found in it.
These deposits are found in the tropical and temperate parts of the Atlantic Ocean.

Select the correct answer from given codes:

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Globigerina ooze:

Is calcareous, not siliceous
Contains shell fragments and minerals like quartz and mica
Occurs mainly in tropical and temperate Atlantic regions

Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.

66. ‘Stop and go determinism’ is related to:

(A) Griffith Taylor
(B) R. Hartshorne
(C) Jean Brunhes
(D) Ellen Churchill Semple

Answer: (A) Griffith Taylor

Explanation:

Thomas Griffith Taylor proposed:

“Stop and Go Determinism”

This concept suggested:

Nature sets limits
Humans can progress only within environmental possibilities

It is a middle path between determinism and possibilism.

67. Match the following List – I and List – II.

List – I (Geographers)	List – II (Related Work)
a. Eratosthenes	2. Identified five climatic zones
b. Plato	3. Deductive approach
c. Hipparchus	4. Identified the grid of latitude and longitude
d. Aristotle	1. Inductive approach

Correct Match:

a → 2
b → 3
c → 4
d → 1

Answer: (D) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

Eratosthenes → climatic zones
Plato → deductive reasoning
Hipparchus → latitude-longitude grid
Aristotle → inductive method

68. Who among the following coined the term “Topophilia”, to describe the affective bond that develops between people and place?

(A) E. Huntington
(B) A. Hettner
(C) Yi-Fu Tuan
(D) K. Relph

Answer: (C) Yi-Fu Tuan

Explanation:

Yi-Fu Tuan coined the term:

“Topophilia”

Meaning:

Emotional attachment between people and place
Important concept in humanistic geography.

69. Which among the following is the correct chronological order of Greek Scholars?

Eratosthenes
Posidonius
Hecataeus
Hipparchus

(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 3 1 4

Answer: (A) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Chronological order:

Hecataeus
Eratosthenes
Hipparchus
Posidonius

Thus the correct order is:

Hecataeus → Eratosthenes → Hipparchus → Posidonius

70. Who among the following scholars coined the term “Permafrost” to explain the Siberian soils?

(A) Carl Ritter
(B) Alexander von Humboldt
(C) Agassiz
(D) Gibson

Answer: (D) Gibson

Explanation:

The term Permafrost was introduced by S. W. Muller in modern usage, but in classical geography references the term is associated with Gibson regarding Siberian permanently frozen soils.

Permafrost refers to:

Permanently frozen ground
Common in Siberia, Alaska, and Arctic regions

71. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Vindhyachal range?

(A) Its average height is 500 meters and maximum height is 881 meters
(B) Bhander and Kaimur ranges are situated in its western part
(C) Vindhyachal range is located to the north of Narmada-Son rivers
(D) To the west of Gangurgarh, this range is made of lava rocks

Answer: (B) Bhander and Kaimur ranges are situated in its western part

Explanation:

The Kaimur and Bhander ranges are located in the eastern section of the Vindhyas, not the western part.

The Vindhyan range:

Lies north of the Narmada valley
Extends eastward toward the Son valley

72. Which of these statements is correct about the red and yellow soil of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) This soil has high humus content
(B) It contains high amount of nitrogen and potash
(C) Alkalinity is very low in this soil
(D) This soil is found in Mandla, Shahdol, Balaghat districts

Answer: (D) This soil is found in Mandla, Shahdol, Balaghat districts

Explanation:

Red and yellow soils in Madhya Pradesh:

Occur mainly in eastern districts like:
- Mandla
- Shahdol
- Balaghat
Are generally poor in nitrogen and humus

73. Which of these river-groups has drainage area in two states?

(A) Kopra, Betwa and Dudhi
(B) Ken, Tawa and Dehar
(C) Betwa, Dhasan and Ken
(D) Dhasan, Betwa and Bebas

Answer: (C) Betwa, Dhasan and Ken

Explanation:

The rivers:

Betwa
Dhasan
Ken

flow through both:

Madhya Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh

Hence their drainage basins extend across two states.

74. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Cereals	Major producing districts (2020–21)
(A) Paddy — Shajapur, Agar Malwa
(B) Bajra — Morena, Bhind
(C) Jowar — Bhind, Gwalior
(D) Maize — Chhindwara, Seoni

Answer: (C) Jowar — Bhind, Gwalior

Explanation:

Jowar (sorghum) is mainly produced in western and central parts of Madhya Pradesh, not primarily in Bhind and Gwalior.

Other pairs are correctly matched.

75. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer.

List – I (Irrigation Project)	List – II (River Basin)
a. Samrat Ashok	4. Betwa
b. Sukta	3. Narmada
c. Thanwar	1. Wainganga
d. Rajghat	2. Sindh

Correct Match:

a → 4
b → 3
c → 1
d → 2

Answer: (A) 4 3 1 2

Explanation:

These irrigation projects are associated with their respective river basins in Madhya Pradesh.

76. Suspension cultivation in Japan is related to which among the following?

(A) Oyster
(B) Mollusca
(C) Shrimp
(D) Whaling

Answer: (A) Oyster

Explanation:

Japan is famous for suspension cultivation of oysters.

In this method:

Oysters are suspended using ropes or rafts in coastal waters
It is an advanced form of aquaculture

77. Which of the following pair regarding coral reefs does not match correctly?

(A) Subsidence theory — Darwin
(B) Standstill theory — Murray
(C) Glacial control theory — Daly
(D) Coral bleaching theory — Davis

Answer: (D) Coral bleaching theory — Davis

Explanation:

Charles Darwin → Subsidence theory
John Murray → Standstill theory
Reginald Daly → Glacial control theory

“Coral bleaching theory” is not associated with Davis.

78. A coral reef:

Whose landward slope is gentle
Whose seaward slope is steep and vertical
This is usually attached to the coastal land
Such coral reefs are found in Sakau island

Which of the following is a coral reef with the characteristics mentioned above?

(A) Atoll reef
(B) Barrier reef
(C) Fringing reef
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Fringing reef

Explanation:

Fringing reefs:

Are attached directly to the coast
Have gentle inner slopes
Have steep outer slopes toward the sea

They are the most common coral reef type.

79. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Corals are found at shallow depth
(B) Very high oceanic salinity is beneficial for coral growth
(C) Oceanic waves and currents are beneficial for corals
(D) Global warming has an adverse effect on corals

Answer: (B) Very high oceanic salinity is beneficial for coral growth

Explanation:

Corals require:

Moderate salinity
Warm shallow water
Well-oxygenated water

Very high salinity adversely affects coral growth.

80. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Temperature and density are generally inversely related in oceanic water
(B) When salinity increases, density of oceanic water also increases
(C) Pressure and density of oceanic water are directly related
(D) Temperature of oceanic water below freezing point increases its density even more

Answer: (D) Temperature of oceanic water below freezing point increases its density even more

Explanation:

Ocean water reaches maximum density near freezing point, but once freezing begins:

Ice formation lowers density
Ice floats on water

Thus statement (D) is incorrect.

81. The eastern part of Thar Desert upto Aravalli Hills is known as:

(A) Marusthali
(B) Khadar
(C) Rajasthan Bagar
(D) Tarai

Answer: (C) Rajasthan Bagar

Explanation:

The semi-arid eastern margin of the Thar Desert extending up to the Aravalli Hills is called:

Rajasthan Bagar

82. Consider the following passes of the Himalayan region.

Banihal
Shipki
Burzil Pass
Bara-Lacha-La

In which group the sequence of these passes according to their location from North to South is correct?

(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 4, 2, 3, 1
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer: (B) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:

North to South order:

Burzil Pass
Banihal Pass
Bara-Lacha-La
Shipki La

These passes are located across Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and surrounding Himalayan regions.

83. The Northern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain is known as:

(A) Konkan Coast
(B) Coromandel Coast
(C) Northern Circars
(D) Malabar Coast

Answer: (C) Northern Circars

Explanation:

The Eastern Coastal Plain is divided into:

Northern Circars (north)
Coromandel Coast (south)

Konkan and Malabar belong to the western coast.

84. According to P. Koteshwaram, the Indian Monsoon is related to:

(A) Tropical cyclones
(B) Tibetan Plateau
(C) EL Niño
(D) Low latitude upper air trough

Answer: (D) Low latitude upper air trough

Explanation:

P. Koteshwaram related the Indian monsoon mechanism to:

Low latitude upper air troughs and jet stream dynamics.

85. Where do the western disturbances that bring winter rains to north-western India originate?

(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Black Sea
(C) Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea

Answer: (C) Mediterranean Sea

Explanation:

Western disturbances:

Originate near the Mediterranean region
Move eastward with the westerlies
Bring winter rainfall to north-western India.

86. Read the following statements about the Mahan Aluminium Plant of Madhya Pradesh.

It is located near Bargawan in Sidhi district.
It is an integrated aluminium smelting plant.
French technology is used for smelting.
A captive power plant of 900 MW is associated with this.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Hindalco Industries established the Mahan Aluminium Project:

Near Bargawan in Sidhi district
Integrated smelter complex
Uses advanced foreign technology
Supported by a 900 MW captive power plant

87. Which type of paper is mainly manufactured at Orient Paper Mill, Amlai?

(A) Newsprint paper
(B) Packing paper
(C) Printing and writing paper
(D) Art paper

Answer: (C) Printing and writing paper

Explanation:

Orient Paper Mills is mainly known for:

Printing paper
Writing paper

It is one of the important paper industries of Madhya Pradesh.

88. According to the 2011 Census, which of the following group of districts had the lowest decadal growth rate of population during 2001–2011?

(A) Anuppur, Betul, Mandsaur
(B) Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara
(C) Chhindwara, Mandsaur, Balaghat
(D) Neemuch, Betul, Chhindwara

Answer: (B) Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara

Explanation:

According to Census 2011:

Anuppur
Betul
Chhindwara

recorded comparatively low decadal population growth rates in Madhya Pradesh.

89. Following statements are given about the Malwa Plateau.

The Malwa Plateau is made up of rocks of Deccan Trap.
Rocks of Deccan Trap are harder than the Vindhyan rocks.
The Vindhyan residual hills have come up due to erosion of Deccan Trap at places.
Examples of spheroidal weathering are found on hill slopes in Sagar district.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

The Malwa Plateau:

Is formed mainly by basaltic Deccan Trap lava
Shows residual Vindhyan hills
Contains weathering features such as spheroidal weathering

Hence all statements are correct.

90. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) Most of the region is a peneplain dotted with small hills in between
(B) The soil is made up of mixture of black and red soil in this region
(C) Most of the soil is sandy and loamy here
(D) Average height of this region is 1000 to 1200 meters

Answer: (D) Average height of this region is 1000 to 1200 meters

Explanation:

The Bundelkhand region:

Has average elevation around 300–600 meters
Is characterized by old crystalline rocks and dissected uplands

Thus option (D) is incorrect.

91. Which of the following concepts is not related to James Hutton?

(A) Principle of Uniformitarianism
(B) Present is the key to the past
(C) No vestige of the beginning and no prospect of an end
(D) Concept of Catastrophism

Answer: (D) Concept of Catastrophism

Explanation:

James Hutton proposed:

Uniformitarianism
Gradual geological change

Catastrophism was associated mainly with Georges Cuvier.

92. Who among the following introduced the term base level?

(A) J. W. Powell
(B) John Playfair
(C) Charles Lyell
(D) James Hutton

Answer: (A) J. W. Powell

Explanation:

John Wesley Powell introduced the concept of:

Base Level

Meaning:

The lowest limit to which erosion can occur
Usually sea level is considered the ultimate base level

93. Who first introduced the concept of dynamic equilibrium?

(A) G. K. Gilbert
(B) W. M. Davis
(C) Albert Penck
(D) Walter Penck

Answer: (A) G. K. Gilbert

Explanation:

Grove Karl Gilbert first explained:

Dynamic Equilibrium

This concept means:

Landforms maintain balance between erosion and uplift processes.

94.

The line making right angle with the dip is called the strike to the inclined plane.
When there are a series of minor anticlines and synclines within one extensive anticline, then that shape is called an anticlinorium.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Strike is the line perpendicular to dip direction
Anticlinorium refers to a large anticline containing smaller folds within it

Thus both statements are correct.

95.

Some scientists believe that rift valleys are created by compressional forces.
According to Ballard, rift valleys are created in gradual stages.
Albert Lake is an example of rift valley.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Rift valleys may form due to tensional or compressional interpretations
Some geologists explained gradual formation
Lake Albert is part of the East African Rift System

Hence all statements are accepted as correct.

96.

Statement I: Haematite iron ore occurs as massive and hard compact ore having reddish or coral red colour.

Statement II: Most of the Haematite iron ore is found in Dharwar and Cuddapah rock systems.

(A) Both statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation to Statement I
(B) Both statements I and II are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation to Statement I
(C) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

Answer: (B) Both statements I and II are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation

Explanation:

Haematite ore is reddish in colour due to iron oxide
Major deposits occur in Dharwar and Cuddapah systems

However statement II does not explain the colour or physical nature mentioned in statement I.

97. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Tidal energy is obtained from Sundarban
(B) ‘Tamba’ plant in Kutch is prominent for wind energy
(C) ‘Tuticorin’ plant in Tamil Nadu provides solar energy
(D) A plant to obtain geothermal energy was set up in Puga Valley of Ladakh

Answer: (C) ‘Tuticorin’ plant in Tamil Nadu provides solar energy

Explanation:

Tuticorin is mainly associated with:

Thermal power
Wind energy developments nearby

It is not particularly famous as a solar energy plant location.

98. Where was the first successful iron and steel factory established in India?

(A) Kulti
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhadravati
(D) Rourkela

Answer: (A) Kulti

Explanation:

The first successful iron and steel factory in India was established at:
Kulti

Later, large integrated steel plants developed at Jamshedpur and other centres.

99. Where was the first successful cotton textile mill set up in India?

(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolhapur

Answer: (B) Mumbai

Explanation:

The first successful cotton textile mill in India:

Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company
Established in 1854 at Mumbai

Mumbai later became known as:

“Cottonopolis of India”

Erasmus Darwin propounded the cloud instability theory of rainfall.

Other scientists are associated with different theories:

George Hadley → Trade wind theory
Tor Bergeron and Walter Findeisen → Ice-crystal theory of precipitation.

00. Which of the following is not a major industrial region of India?

(A) Kolkata–Hugli
(B) Nagpur–Wardha
(C) Ahmedabad–Vadodara
(D) Madurai–Coimbatore–Bengaluru

Answer: (D) Madurai–Coimbatore–Bengaluru

Explanation:

Major industrial regions identified in India include:

Kolkata–Hugli
Ahmedabad–Vadodara
Mumbai–Pune
Chotanagpur region

The Madurai–Coimbatore–Bengaluru belt is industrially important but not classified as a major industrial region in standard regional classifications.

101. According to Jenkins’s salinity classification, which of the following seas has more than normal salinity?

(A) Andaman Sea
(B) Bering Sea
(C) Japan Sea
(D) Red Sea

Answer: (D) Red Sea

Explanation:

The Red Sea has:

Very high evaporation
Low rainfall
Limited river inflow

Therefore salinity is much higher than the normal oceanic salinity.

102. Below what depth in sea water, diurnal range of temperature is not found?

(A) 6 feet
(B) 10 feet
(C) 15 feet
(D) 30 feet

Answer: (D) 30 feet

Explanation:

Daily temperature variation affects only the uppermost layer of ocean water.

Below about 30 feet depth:

Diurnal variation becomes negligible.

103. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer.

List – I (Tide Origin Theory)	List – II (Proponent)
a. Dynamical Theory	4. Laplace
b. Equilibrium Theory	3. Newton
c. Progressive Wave Theory	1. R. A. Harris
d. Stationary Wave Theory	2. William Whewell

Correct Match:

a → 4
b → 3
c → 1
d → 2

Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2

Explanation:

Isaac Newton → Equilibrium theory
Pierre-Simon Laplace → Dynamical theory

104. If high tide at a place occurs at 4 p.m., when will the next high tide occur at the same place?

(A) 4:52 p.m.
(B) 4:52 a.m.
(C) 4:26 p.m.
(D) 4:26 a.m.

Answer: (D) 4:26 a.m.

Explanation:

$24\text{ hours }52\text{ minutes} \div 2 = 12\text{ hours }26\text{ minutes}$

The interval between two successive high tides is:

Approximately 12 hours 26 minutes

Therefore:

4:00 p.m. + 12 h 26 m = 4:26 a.m.

105. Which of the following are cold oceanic currents?

Humboldt
Oyashio
Kuroshio
Benguela

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Cold currents:

Humboldt Current
Oyashio Current
Benguela Current

Kuroshio Current is a warm current.

106. The rural-urban fringe means:

(A) The central business district of a city
(B) The frontier of discontinuity (transitional zone) between the urban and rural areas
(C) A highly populated residential area
(D) An industrial zone within the city

Answer: (B) The frontier of discontinuity (transitional zone) between the urban and rural areas

Explanation:

The rural-urban fringe:

Lies between rural and urban zones
Has mixed land use
Shows transitional characteristics

107. Who propounded the Law of the Primate City?

(A) Mark Jefferson
(B) Carl Sauer
(C) Vidal de la Blache
(D) G. K. Zipf

Answer: (A) Mark Jefferson

Explanation:

Mark Jefferson proposed:

Law of the Primate City

A primate city:

Dominates economically and politically
Is disproportionately larger than other cities in a country

108. The two main principles that influence the hierarchy in Christaller’s theory:

(A) Transport and Economic Special Principles
(B) Threshold Population and Range of Goods
(C) Agglomeration and Localization
(D) Demand and Supply

Answer: (B) Threshold Population and Range of Goods

Explanation:

Walter Christaller explained settlement hierarchy through:

Threshold population
Range of goods and services

These determine central place functions.

109. Which statement is not correct regarding Lösch’s Central Place Theory?

(A) Hexagonal unit used like Christaller
(B) The value of ‘K’ remains constant
(C) The value of ‘K’ keeps increasing and decreasing
(D) Lösch described the central place theory and its market areas in his book The Economics of Location

Answer: (B) The value of ‘K’ remains constant

Explanation:

August Lösch modified Christaller’s model:

K values are not fixed
Market areas vary according to economic conditions

Hence option (B) is incorrect.

110. Which of the following scholars has determined the hierarchy of settlements of Middle Ganga Valley?

(A) Prof. Jagdish Singh
(B) S. C. Bansal
(C) Prof. Kashinath Singh
(D) S. L. Bhatt

Answer: (D) S. L. Bhatt

Explanation:

S. L. Bhatt studied:

Settlement hierarchy
Urban systems of the Middle Ganga Valley

111. Following statements are given regarding GPS system:

It is based on radio-navigation system.
It provides accurate three-dimensional reference position.

Select the correct answer from given code:

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Global Positioning System:

Uses satellite-based radio navigation
Provides accurate 3D positioning:
- Latitude
- Longitude
- Elevation

112. Following statements are given about regression analysis:

If there is perfect correlation between the two variables, then the two regression lines superimpose each other.
If there is no perfect correlation between the two variables, then the two lines cross each other.
The point at which the two lines cross each other is the mean of the two variables.
If there is no correlation between two variables, then two lines cross each other at right angle.

Select the correct answer from given code:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Important properties of regression lines:

Perfect correlation → lines coincide
Imperfect correlation → lines intersect
They intersect at mean values
Zero correlation → regression lines become perpendicular

113. Following statements are given about regression analysis:

The closer the two regression lines are, the lesser is the correlation between the two variables.
The further apart the two regression lines are, the greater will be the correlation between the variables.

Select the correct answer from given code:

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Explanation:

In regression analysis:

Closer regression lines indicate higher correlation
Greater separation indicates weaker correlation

Therefore both statements are incorrect.

114. The sampling method in which the population is divided into different strata and a random selection is made from each stratum is called—

(A) Stratified Random Sampling
(B) Systematic Sampling
(C) Cluster Random Sampling
(D) Convenience Sampling

Answer: (A) Stratified Random Sampling

Explanation:

In Stratified Random Sampling:

Population is divided into homogeneous groups called strata
Random samples are selected from each stratum

This method improves representation and accuracy.

115. Which one of the following Rn value shows the cluster distribution in the nearest neighbour analysis of habitat distribution?

(A) Rn = 0 – 0.5
(B) Rn = 1.0 – 1.5
(C) Rn = 2.0 – 2.5
(D) Rn = 2.5 – 3.0

Answer: (A) Rn = 0 – 0.5

Explanation:

In nearest neighbour analysis:

Rn close to 0 → Clustered pattern
Rn near 1 → Random pattern
Rn near 2.15 → Uniform distribution

Thus cluster distribution is represented by low Rn values.

116.

Arthur Holmes separated the actions of rainwash and wind, which are associated with erosion from the process of weathering.
According to B. W. Sparks, mechanical fracturing or chemical decomposition of rocks by natural agents at the earth’s surface is known as weathering.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Arthur Holmes distinguished weathering from erosion
B. W. Sparks defined weathering as breakdown of rocks in situ

Hence both statements are correct.

117. Following statements are given regarding exfoliation.

Exfoliation is a result, not weathering process.
This is more common in crystalline rocks.
It occurs more in rocks that have low thermal conductivity.

Select correct answer from code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Exfoliation:

Produces peeling of outer rock layers
Is common in granite and crystalline rocks
Occurs strongly in rocks with low thermal conductivity

Thus all statements are correct.

118.

Vertical cracking occurs in the upper part of the rock due to pressure release; this is called sheeting.
Differential heating of outer and lower shells of a rock mass causes flaking.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct

Explanation:

Sheeting generally involves horizontal cracks due to unloading, not vertical cracks
Flaking occurs due to differential heating and expansion

Therefore only statement 2 is correct.

119. The following facts are given about the geosynclines.

Dana first coined the term geosyncline.
Hall was the first to explain the relationship between folded mountains and geosynclines.
Tethys geosyncline extended across Asia and Europe only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

James Dwight Dana coined the term geosyncline
James Hall related geosynclines with mountain building
Tethys extended beyond only Europe and Asia

Thus statement 3 is incorrect.

120.

The glacial tillite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents.
The resemblance of Gondwana type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories.
Wegener believed that the movement of continents was caused by pole-fleeing force.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Alfred Wegener used:

Glacial deposits
Fossil similarities
Continental fit

as evidence of continental drift and proposed pole-fleeing force as one of the causes.

121. How many criteria were employed by Whittlesey to classify agricultural regions in the world?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 5

Answer: (D) 5

Explanation:

Derwent Whittlesey used five criteria such as:

Crop-livestock association
Labour intensity
Productivity
Commercialization
Techniques

for agricultural regionalization.

122. Arrange the following methods of delineating crop combination regions according to the year proposed from earliest to recent.

J. T. Coppock’s method
Peter Scot Thomas’s method
Doi’s method
J. C. Weaver’s method

Answer: (A) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:

Chronological order:

Weaver
Doi
Thomas
Coppock

These methods progressively improved crop combination analysis.

123. Arrange the following agricultural belts propounded by Von Thünen from the central city to the periphery.

a. Intensive grain farming without fallow
b. Horticulture and milk production
c. Three-field system
d. Livestock farming

Answer: (A) b a c d

Explanation:

Johann Heinrich von Thünen proposed concentric agricultural rings:

Horticulture & dairying
Intensive grain farming
Three-field farming
Livestock ranching

124. Arrange the following countries based on highest to lowest oil reserves.

(A) Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, Canada, Iran
(B) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Canada, Venezuela
(C) Saudi Arabia, Canada, Iran, Venezuela
(D) Venezuela, Iran, Saudi Arabia, Canada

Answer: (A) Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, Canada, Iran

Explanation:

Countries with major proven oil reserves:

Venezuela
Saudi Arabia
Canada
Iran

125. The Rakha Project located in Jharkhand is related to which of the following mineral?

(A) Aluminium
(B) Lead
(C) Iron
(D) Copper

Answer: (D) Copper

Explanation:

The Rakha Mines project is associated with copper mining in the Singhbhum copper belt of Jharkhand.

126. The following statements are given about the production of pulses in Madhya Pradesh.

The State was fourth in the country in the production of pulses in the year 2022–23.
Raisen district was first and Vidisha district was second in the production of gram in the year 2020–21 in the State.
Sagar district was first and Rajgarh district was second in the production of lentil in the year 2020–21 in the State.

Select the correct answer from code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh is generally among the top pulse-producing states, often ranking first rather than fourth.
Raisen and Vidisha were leading gram-producing districts.
Sagar and Rajgarh were leading lentil-producing districts.

Thus statement 1 is incorrect.

127. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Mineral	Reserve / Mining Area
(A) Limestone	Jhukehi, Bankuiya
(B) Bauxite	Pashmandadar, Devsani Pahad
(C) Diamond	Kachidhana, Gowari Badhona
(D) Copper	Sheetalpani, Dhorli

Answer: (C) Diamond – Kachidhana, Gowari Badhona

Explanation:

Diamond reserves in Madhya Pradesh are mainly associated with:

Panna region

The given locations are not major diamond mining centres.

128. Burhar–Amlai and Bijuri coal areas are located in which of the following major coal field?

(A) Mohapani
(B) Kanhan
(C) Pench Valley
(D) Sohagpur

Answer: (D) Sohagpur

Explanation:

The Burhar–Amlai and Bijuri coal areas belong to the:

Sohagpur Coalfield

located in eastern Madhya Pradesh.

129. The following statements are given about the status of renewable energy in Madhya Pradesh till 31 December 2024.

PM Surya Ghar Yojana capacity was 473 MW.
Wind energy capacity was 2844 MW.
Ground mounted solar energy capacity was 7397 MW.
Total renewable energy capacity was 10311 MW.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

All the given figures correspond to the renewable energy statistics of Madhya Pradesh up to December 2024.

130. Which of the following factors are responsible for the localisation of the cement industry in Satna and Kaimur region?

Cement industry is localised near raw material areas.
It gets coal from Sohagpur and Umaria coal mines.
Cement plants have set up near railway lines.
Kaimur plant gets water collected in lime mines.

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All above are correct

Answer: (D) All above are correct

Explanation:

The cement industry in Satna–Kaimur region developed due to:

Abundant limestone
Coal availability
Rail transport facilities
Availability of water resources

Hence all statements are correct.

131.

The presence of rich placer deposits of gold on the Ghana coast despite absence of source rock in the region.
Gold veins are in Brazil.
Ghana’s gold deposits originated from the Brazilian plateau.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

These statements support:
Continental Drift Theory

Wegener used similarities between Brazil and West Africa as evidence of continental drift.

132.

Plate tectonic theory was based on the concept of sea floor spreading.
The term plate was first used by Canadian J. T. Wilson in 1965.
In 1967 McKenzie and Parker explained plate motion on the basis of Euler’s geometrical theorem.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Plate tectonic theory evolved through:

Sea-floor spreading concept
Wilson’s plate terminology
McKenzie and Parker’s mathematical explanation of plate motion

All statements are correct.

133.

Plates move horizontally on the asthenosphere as rigid landmass.
According to plate tectonics, it is the plates that move, not just the continents.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Plate Tectonics explains:

Lithospheric plates move over asthenosphere
Continents are carried along with moving plates

Hence both statements are correct.

134. Following statements are given about the Karst cycle of J. W. Beede.

In mature stage, numerous sink holes and dolines are formed on the surface.
In the old stage cave roofs collapse and karst tunnels and hums develop.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

Karst topography evolves through stages:

Mature stage → sinkholes and dolines
Old stage → cave collapse, tunnels, hums

Both statements are correct.

135.

When the bottom of the bolsons becomes flat and elevated due to deposition it is called a Playa.
Playa with large salt deposits is called Salinas.
Playas and bajadas are located close to each other.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

A playa is a flat-floored desert basin, usually temporary lake bed
Salt-encrusted playas are called salinas
Bajadas occur near playas in desert basins

Statement 1 is not properly defined.

136. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) Spring storm showers — Odisha
(B) Blossom showers — Gujarat
(C) Mango showers — Karnataka
(D) Nor’wester — West Bengal

Answer: (B) Blossom showers — Gujarat

Explanation:

Blossom showers are associated mainly with:
- Kerala
- Karnataka coffee-growing regions

They are not associated with Gujarat.

Nor’westers are common in:
- West Bengal
Mango showers occur in:

Karnataka and Kerala regions

137. Consider the following in the context of tropical wet evergreen forests of India.

Annual rainfall should be below 200 cm
Annual rainfall should exceed 250 cm
Rainfall should be distributed throughout the year
Annual temperature range should be 25°C to 27°C

Which of the above conditions are essential for tropical wet evergreen forests?

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

Answer: (A) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Tropical wet evergreen forests require:

Heavy rainfall above 250 cm
Rainfall throughout the year
High humidity and uniformly high temperature

These forests are found in:

Kerala
Northeastern India
Western Ghats

138. Which is the correct descending order of States in terms of total forested area as per India State of Forest Report 2021?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh – Madhya Pradesh – Chhattisgarh
(B) Chhattisgarh – Madhya Pradesh – Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh – Arunachal Pradesh – Chhattisgarh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh – Chhattisgarh – Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh – Arunachal Pradesh – Chhattisgarh

Explanation:

According to the India State of Forest Report 2021:

Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area
Arunachal Pradesh
Chhattisgarh

139. Match the List-I (Crops) with List-II (State with highest area).

Crops	States
a. Cotton	3. Gujarat
b. Groundnut	4. Maharashtra
c. Gram	2. Madhya Pradesh
d. Sugarcane	1. Uttar Pradesh

Correct Match:

a → 3
b → 4
c → 2
d → 1

Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1 (as per code ordering in question format)

Explanation:

Cotton → Gujarat
Groundnut → Maharashtra
Gram → Madhya Pradesh
Sugarcane → Uttar Pradesh

140. The leading copper ore producing states of India in year 2021–22:

(A) Odisha and Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
(C) Bihar and Odisha
(D) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

Explanation:

Major copper-producing states:

Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh

Important copper belts:

Khetri
Malanjkhand

141. Who was the author of Democratic Ideals and Reality (1919)?

(A) A. T. Mahan
(B) N. J. Spykman
(C) H. J. Mackinder
(D) D. W. Meinig

Answer: (C) H. J. Mackinder

Explanation:

Halford John Mackinder wrote:

Democratic Ideals and Reality (1919)

This work explained the Heartland Theory.

142.

Assertion (A): According to Mackinder’s pivot zone concept (1904), the Heartland region is protected from maritime forces of the outside world.

Reason (R): Rivers in the vast area of Eurasia drain either to inland lakes or to the frozen Arctic Sea.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation

Explanation:

Heartland Theory states:

Eurasian interior is naturally protected
Limited navigable outlets reduce sea power influence

Thus the reason explains the assertion.

143. Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding Spykman’s Rimland Theory?

Rimland was considered to be located mainly in the central part of Russia.
Rimland is the cause of world conflict.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct

Explanation:

Nicholas Spykman described Rimland as:

Coastal fringe surrounding Heartland
Strategic conflict zone of the world

It was not located in central Russia.

144. Some statements are given regarding the elements of a state.

A state is a territory demarcated by boundaries.
The political and military capability of the state is determined by its economic capability.

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

A state requires:

Territory
Population
Government
Sovereignty

Economic strength strongly influences political and military power.

145. The international boundary between which of the following two countries is mostly determined by 49 degrees latitude?

(A) USA and Canada
(B) Spain and France
(C) France and Germany
(D) Germany and Netherlands

Answer: (A) USA and Canada

Explanation:

The:
49th Parallel Boundary

forms a major portion of the USA–Canada boundary.

146. Which of the following atmospheric gases comes under the category of variable gases?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Ozone
(C) Argon
(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (B) Ozone

Explanation:

Variable gases include:

Water vapour
Ozone
Carbon dioxide

Permanent gases include:

Nitrogen
Oxygen
Argon

147. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the exosphere?

(A) It extends from 80 km to 640 km above sea level
(B) Van Allen radiation belt is located in it
(C) This layer disappears with sunset
(D) A layer of it reflects medium and high frequency radio waves back to the earth

Answer: (B) Van Allen radiation belt is located in it

Explanation:

The exosphere:

Is the outermost atmospheric layer
Contains extremely thin gases
Includes the Van Allen radiation belts

148. The following statements are given regarding the seasonal horizontal distribution of temperature on the earth during winter.

In January, isotherms denote a steep temperature gradient in the Northern Hemisphere.
In January, isotherms bend toward the south in the North Atlantic Ocean, whereas they bend toward the north over eastern Europe.

Select the correct answer from the given code.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

During January:

Northern Hemisphere experiences sharp thermal contrasts
Ocean currents modify isotherms:
- North Atlantic Drift bends isotherms northward
- Continental cooling bends them southward

149. Which of the following statements regarding air pressure is not correct?

(A) Atmospheric pressure is always used in relative terms, not absolute terms
(B) The highest air pressure in the world was recorded at Agata in Siberia
(C) In the Southern Hemisphere south of Africa and Australia the air pressure lines are parallel to latitude lines
(D) Atmospheric pressure is minimum at sea level

Answer: (D) Atmospheric pressure is minimum at sea level

Explanation:

Atmospheric pressure:

Is maximum at sea level
Decreases with altitude

Hence option (D) is incorrect.

150.

Assertion (A): Despite low temperatures year-round, low pressure persists in the North Atlantic Ocean around Greenland and Iceland.

Reason (R): This low pressure is due to thermally induced conditions.

Select correct answer from given code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct

Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct

Explanation:

The:
Icelandic Low is a dynamic low-pressure system caused mainly by cyclonic activity, not thermal conditions alone.

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MP ASSISTANT PROFESSORS GEOGRAPHY QUESTION PAPER

MP ASSISTANT PROFESSORS GEOGRAPHY QUESTION PAPER 2024

1. Which one of the following is not a local cold wind?

Answer: (D) Zonda

Explanation:

2. The following causes are given regarding the mechanical modification in the air masses:

Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

3. Which of the following regions is not included in the major areas of frontogenesis in North America?

Answer: (A) Area west of Sierra Nevada mountain range

Explanation:

4. Which one of the following is a characteristic of a temperate cyclone?

Answer: (A) These cyclones generally move from west to east

Explanation:

5. In Thornthwaite’s revised climatic classification of 1948, the basis for demarcating climatic regions was:

Answer: (B) Potential evapotranspiration

Explanation:

6. According to 2023 data, what percentage of the world's population lived in Asia?

Answer: (B) Around 60 per cent

Explanation:

7. Replacement Rate refers to:

Answer: (D) No. of female babies a woman is expected to have in her child-bearing years

Explanation:

8. How can the Crude Death Rate be measured?

Answer: (A) The number of deaths per 1000 total (mid-year) population

Explanation:

9. Which policy is an example of a pro-natalist policy?

Answer: (B) Government incentives for larger families

Explanation:

10. Which theory explains migration in terms of advantages associated with destination by individuals?

Answer: (B) Push-Pull Theory

Explanation:

11. In 1972, C. S. Chandrasekhara divided India into how many planning regions in his two-tier regional scheme?

Answer: (A) 13 Macro and 35 Meso regions

Explanation:

12. What is the primary strategic importance of the Rimland?

Answer: (C) Control over oceans and coastal regions

Explanation:

13. Who classified the geographic elements of the State into physical, human and economic factors?

Answer: (C) Rudolf Kjellen

Explanation:

14. Match the following inter-State water disputes in India with their respective States.

Correct Match:

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

15. The term ‘sustainable development’ was popularised by which of the following reports?

Answer: (B) Brundtland Report

Explanation:

16. Match the following:

Correct Match:

Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

17. Which of the following is the major steel producing region of United States of America?

Answer: (A) Pittsburgh–Youngstown region

Explanation:

18. Whose work description is “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labour (1954)”?

Answer: (D) W. A. Lewis

Explanation:

19. World's busiest sea route is:

Answer: (C) North Atlantic sea route

Explanation:

20. The ratio between number of links and the number of nodes is:

Answer: (B) Beta Index

Explanation:

21. Observe the statements given about idealism and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

Code:

Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

22. In modern geography the concept of “Areal Differentiation” is related to which of the following?

Answer: (C) Richard Hartshorne

Explanation:

23. Which of these statements about Vidal De La Blache is not correct?

Answer: (D) Blache supported the dualism between the natural and cultural aspects of geography

Explanation:

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below.

Correct Match:

Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Answer: (B) $2\pi R \cos 45^\circ$