UGC NET 2013 December Paper-II and III Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers
NTA NET SEPTEMBER ,2020 ক্র্যাকিংয়ের জন্য, বিভিন্ন বিষয়ে পরীক্ষার্থী, তারা আবেদন করছে তার জন্য বিগত বছরের প্রশ্নপত্র গুলি অনুশীলন করতে হবে। এটি নির্ভুলতার সাথে সর্বনিম্ন সময়ে সর্বাধিক প্রশ্নের সঠিক চেষ্টা করার তাদের গতি উন্নত করতে সহায়তা করবে। সুতরাং, এই নিবন্ধে আমরা ইউজিসি নেট 2013 december পেপার -2 ও 3 পোস্ট করা হচ্ছে ।
Keyword: December 2013 paper II and III Answer,
PAPER - 2 - UGC -NET - DECEMBER 2013
1. Which of the following processes is responsible for weathering of rocks in the Karst region?
(A) Scree formation
(B) Carbonation
(C) Oxidation
(D) Hydrolysis
Answer: (B)
2. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Woolridge and Morgan i. Principles of Geomorphology
b. Thornbury ii. Geomorphology
c. Van Ricthofen iii. Spirit and purpose of Geography
d. Steers iv. Unstable Earth
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer: (C)
3. Which one of these glacial features is believed to have formed in the bed of a sub-glacial stream?
(A) An Esker
(B) A Morraine
(C) Drumlin
(D) Kame
Answer: (A)
4. Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has divided India into how many seismic zones?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: (B)
5. Bad-land Topography is the product of the combined action of
(A) Wind and Glacier
(B) Wind and Water
(C) Water and Glacier
(D) Water and Temperature
Answer: (B)
6. Increase in temperature with increase in height is known as
(A) Lapse rate
(B) Adiabatic lapse rate
(C) Inversion of temperature
(D) Normal rate
Answer: (C)
7. Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall:
(A) Unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation
(B) Dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation
(C) Unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation
(D) Dew point, precipitation, condensation, unsaturated air
Answer: (C)
8. Read out the following conditions:
1. Cloudy sky
2. Cold dry air
3. Strong winds
4. Long winter nights
Which of the above conditions promote inversion of temperature?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: (D)
9. The climate of Southern Ganga plain in the Thornthwait classification is denoted by
(A) BA' W
(B) CA' W
(C) AA' W
(D) CW' W
Answer: (D)
10. When the wind is deflected due to the rotation of earth it is known as
(A) Planetary wind
(B) Geostrophic wind
(C) Accidental wind
(D) Forced wind
Answer: (B)
11. Salinity in water bodies increases with
(A) increase in evaporation and decrease in admixture of fresh water.
(B) decrease in evaporation and increase in admixture of fresh water.
(C) Decrease in evaporation and no change in admixture of fresh water.
(D) Increase in evaporation and increase in admixture of fresh water.
Answer: (A)
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from codes given below:
Assertion (A): The salinity in Dead Sea is very low.www.netugc.com
Reason (R): Dead Sea is located in tropical dry climatic region, where evaporation is high, precipitation is low and here drainage is internal.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are right.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(D) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
Answer: (C)
13. Which one of the following primary greenhouse gases is not associated with global warming?
(A) Water vapour
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: (D)
14. Match List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(National Park) (State)
a. Eraviculam i. Karnataka
b. Bandipur ii. Kerala
c. Hemis iii. Manipur
d. Sironi iv. Jammu & Kashmir
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) i iv iii ii
Answer: (A)
15. Which one of the following is a Taiga Biome?
(A) Sub-Tropical Biome
(B) Sub-Arctic Biome
(C) Savanna Biome
(D) Sub-Sahara Biome
Answer: (B)
16. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
List – I List – II
(Geographer) (Country)
a. Alexander Von Humboldt i. France
b. Ellen Churchill Semple ii. U.K.
c. Peter Haggett iii. U.S.A.
d. Jeans Brunhes iv. Germany
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Answer: (C)
17. Who among the following defined Geography as Discovery of Predictive Patterns during quantitative revolution period?
(A) Haggett
(B) Harvey
(C) Stewart
(D) Bunge
Answer: (D)
18. In describing the patterns and processes of spatial interaction, geographers are most concerned with
(A) Accessibility and Connectivity
(B) Density and Dispersion
(C) Diffusion and Pattern
(D) Pedestrian Cities
Answer: (A)
19. Who founded the Humanistic School of Geography?
(A) Wolpert
(B) Tuan
(C) Kirk
(D) Harvey
Answer: (B)
20. Who amongst the following correlated colour of ocean water and its salinity?
(A) Ibn – Khaldun
(B) Al – Masudi
(C) Ibn – Sina
(D) Al – Maqdisi
Answer: (B)
21. “All history must be treated geographically and all geography must be treated historically.” Who wrote this?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Ratzel
(C) Blache
(D) Davis
Answer: (A)
22. Which school of thoughts developed the Science of Astronomy?
(A) Greeks
(B) Chinese
(C) Roman
(D) Arabs
Answer: (A)
23. Demographic transition is a framework that explores the historical sequence of changes in
1. Fertility and migration
2. Mortality and age-structure
3. Mortality and migration
4. Age-structure and sex-composition
(A) 1 and 4 are correct.
(B) 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) only 1 is correct.
(D) 1 and 2 are correct.
Answer: (D)
24. Name the State which employs the highest number of child labour in the country.
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Answer: (C)
25. India’s decadal population growth rate has been continuously declining since
(A) 1971-81
(B) 1981-91
(C) 1991-2001
(D) 2001-2011
Answer: (A)
26. Diego Garcia is an island in which of the following oceans?
(A) Atlantic
(B) Pacific
(C) Indian
(D) Arctic
Answer: (C)
27. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Urbanization is a defining phenomenon of this century and the developing countries are at the locus of this transformation.
Reason (R): The urban shift has happened in the last few decades largely due to rapid mega cities growth in the developing countries.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
28. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Baku i. Diamond
b. Kuzbas Basin ii. Iron ore
c. Urals iii. Coal
d. Eastern Siberia iv. Oil
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
29. Marquette range in U.S.A. is known for
(A) Uranium
(B) Copper
(C) Gold
(D) Iron ore
Answer: (D)
30. The location of paper industries is highly influenced by which one of the following factors?
(A) Availability and nearness of raw material
(B) Nearness of market
(C) Availability of capital
(D) Transport connectivity
Answer: (A)
31. Which one of the following is the largest volume of import commodities in India?
(A) Raw materials
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Petroleum & Lubricants
(D) Pearls and Precious stones
Answer: (C)
32. Kirkuk, one of the most important oilfields in the world, is located in
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Russia
Answer: (B)
33. To which racial groups the Eskimos belong to?
(A) The Negroids
(B) The Mongoloids
(C) The Caucasoids
(D) The Australoids
Answer: (B)
34. The concept of ‘Cultural landscape’ was promoted by
(A) Ratzel
(B) Anne Buttimer
(C) Carl Sauer
(D) Wilbur Zelinsky
Answer: (C)
35. Which one of the following Islamic countries is predominantly of Shia sect?
(A) Iraq
(B) Iran
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
Answer: (B)
36. Who, among the following, propounded the concept of compage?
(A) Minshull
(B) Blache
(C) Whittlesey
(D) Isard
Answer: (C)
37. Organic Theory of the State was propounded by
(A) Mackinder
(B) Ratzel
(C) Haushofer
(D) Isaiah Bawman
Answer: (B)
38. Quasi Federal Form of Government is in
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Great Britain
(C) Russia
(D) India
Answer: (D)
39. Which of the following was the earliest regional planning exercise in India?
(A) National Capital Region Plan
(B) Dandakaranya Area Plan
(C) Damodar Valley Project
(D) Bhakra-Nangal Project
Answer: (C)
40. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?
(A) Utilitarian Planning – Functional Planning
(B) Comprehensive Planning – Integrated Planning
(C) Regional Planning – Spatial Planning
(D) Sectoral Planning – Co-ordinated Planning
Answer: (D)
41. Which one of the following States has the longest coast line?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Answer: (C)
42. In which of the following States of India the concentration of laterite soils is higher?
(A) Odisha
(B) Gujarat
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (A)
43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Laterite soils are well developed in Kerala.
Reason (R): Kerala receives high rainfall during monsoon season.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(D) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A).
Answer: (A)
44. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Himalayan Rivers are perennial.
Reason (R): The region gets rainfall from the South West monsoon season only.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
45. The ‘Valley of Kashmir’ lies between which of the following ranges?
(A) Pir-Panjal and Karakoram Range
(B) Pir-Panjal and Zaskar range
(C) Zaskar and Ladakh range
(D) Sulaiman and Kirthar range
Answer: (B)
46. Which one of the following regions has the highest proportion of agricultural land under irrigation?
(A) Punjab-Haryana Plain
(B) Rajasthan-Gujarat Plain
(C) West Bengal Delta
(D) Uttar Pradesh-Bihar Plain
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
48. If the variability of rainfall is to be measured, which of the following techniques will be used?
(A) Mean Deviation
(B) Standard Deviation
(C) Coefficient of Variation
(D) Interquartile Range
Answer: (C)
49. Which of the following is not a Quantitative Distribution Map?
(A) Choroschematic Map
(B) Isopleth Map
(C) Dot Map
(D) Choropleth Map
Answer: (A)
50. Occupational structure of population in India at State level is best represented by
(A) Dot Method
(B) Isopleth
(C) Choropleth
(D) Pie diagram
PAPER- 3 - UGC- NET- GEOGRAPHY - DECEMBER - 2013
1. The concept of geosynclines was given by
(A) James Hall and Dana
(B) Hang
(C) Holmes
(D) Steers
Answer: (A)
2. The Base Level concept was postulated by
(A) James Hutton
(B) J.W. Powell
(C) W.M. Davis
(D) Walther Penck
Answer: (B)
3. Which of the following is formed as a result of tectonic forces?
(A) Hanging valley
(B) V-shaped valley
(C) Rift valley
(D) Blind valley
Answer: (C)
4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:
List – I List – II
a. A plain largely composed of recent alluvium i. Pedi plain
b. a deep sea plain ii. Loess plain
c. a plain formed by wind action iii. Flood plain
d. a level surface lightly covered with thin layer of alluvium iv. Abyssal plain
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iv iii i ii
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: (D)
5. “The present is the key to the past.” This statement was made by
(A) W.M. Davis
(B) James Hutton
(C) Van Ritchthofen
(D) A. Penck
Answer: (B)
6. Which of the following was a part of Lauratia?
(A) Anatolian Plate
(B) Chinese Plate
(C) Iranian Plate
(D) Agean Plate
Answer: (B)
7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the given codes:
List – I List – II
a. Normal fault i. Displacement of both the rock blocks in opposite directions
b. Reverse fault ii. Movement of both the rock blocks towards each other
c. Lateral fault iii. Displacement of rock block horizontally along fault plane
d. Stege fault iv. When the slopes of a series of faults are in same direction
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) ii iii i iv
Answer: (A)
8. When does an escarpment appear?
(A) When a land block moves horizontally.
(B) When a land block moves vertically.
(C) When a land block moves due to water logging.
(D) When a land block moves due to human intervention.
Answer: (B)
9. Identify fluvio-glacial deposits from the following:
(A) Outwash plain
(B) Flood plain
(C) Penne plain
(D) Pan plain
Answer: (A)
10. Migration from developed to less developed region is called as
(A) Emigration
(B) Immigration
(C) Perverse migration
(D) Reverse migration
Answer: (C)
11."Space is socially or culturally constructed" is the view under
(A) Logical positivism
(B) Behaviouralism
(C) Post modernism
(D) Structuralism
Answer: (C)
12. A counter clock-wise atmospheric circulation in the northern hemisphere is known as
(A) Pressure gradient
(B) Cyclone
(C) Anti-cyclone
(D) Tornado
Answer: (B)
13. The author of the book ‘The Unstable Earth’ is
(A) Paschel
(B) Gilberk G.K.
(C) Mallot C.A.
(D) J.A. Steers
Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following earthquake waves are most destructive?
(A) S-waves
(B) P-waves
(C) R-waves
(D) L-waves
Answer: (A)
15. Mediterranean climate is characterized by
(A) Dry summer and humid winter
(B) Humid summer and Dry winter
(C) Dry summer and Dry winter
(D) Humid summer with no winter
Answer: (A)
16. Insolation reaches the earth surface in the form of
(A) Short waves
(B) Long waves
(C) Microwaves
(D) Lorenz curve
Answer: (A)www.netugc.com
17. The range of visible wave length on electromagnetic spectrum is
(A) 0.4 to 0.7 micrometres
(B) 0.7 to 15.0 micrometres
(C) 0.3 to 0.9 micrometres
(D) 0.3 to 15.0 micrometres
Answer: (A)
18. As per the Koppen’s scheme the Bhwh type of climate is found in
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Odisha
Answer: (B)
19. Cold dry wind experienced particularly in winter along the eastern coast of Atlantic Ocean and in Northern Italy is called
(A) Cyclone
(B) Boras
(C) Tornado
(D) Hurricane
Answer: (B)
20. The atmosphere gets heated by which one of the following?
(A) Direct rays of the sun
(B) Volcanic activity
(C) Burning of organic material
(D) Radiation from the earth
Answer: (B)
21. A tropical cyclone was located 500 kms. South-West of Visakhapatnam. The cyclone first moved 250 kms in North-West direction and then suddenly changed the direction to the North-East. Which of the following ports would raise the highest danger signal?
(A) Chennai
(B) Haldia
(C) Visakhapatanam
(D) Tuticorin
Answer: (C)
22. Which one of the following regions does not receive much rainfall during the South-West monsoon season?
(A) Tamil Nadu Coast
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(D) Eastern Himalayas
Answer: (A)
23. In which type of climate equiplanation process i.e., reduction of relief to a plain takes place?
(A) Arid climate
(B) Cold climate
(C) Tropical climate
(D) Temperate climate
Answer: (B)
24. Winter rainfall in North-Western part of India is mainly due to
(A) Western disturbance
(B) North-East Monsoon
(C) North-West Monsoon
(D) Depression in the Bay of Bengal
Answer: (A)
Answer: (B)
26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India is affected by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.
Reason (R): Tropical cyclone originates only in the Bay of Bengal.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
Answer: (C)
27. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:
List – I List – II
(Names of tropical cyclones) (Regions)
a. Hurricanes i. Australia
b. Typhoons ii. Japan
c. Willy-Willy iii. U.S.A.
d. Taifu iv. China
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) ii i iii iv
Answer: (A)
28. The temperature that provides favourable ecological conditions for living coral reefs is
(A) Less than 10 °C
(B) 10 °C to 15 °C
(C) 15 °C to 20 °C
(D) More than 20 °C
Answer: (D)
29. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:
List – I List – II
a. Coral reef i. Organic Ocean Deposit
b. Shoal ii. Deep flat surface
c. Abyssal plain iii. Steep descent from the shelf bed
d. Continentalslope iv. Detachedelevation withshallow depth
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iv ii iii
Answer: (D)
30. Which among the following has postulated the Subsidence Theory related to coral reef?
(A) Dally
(B) Agassiz
(C) Darwin
(D) Davis
Answer: (C)
31. If a tide occurs at a place at 6 p.m. when will be the next tide occurs?
(A) 00.13 a.m. of the next day
(B) 06.26 a.m. of the next day
(C) 12.39 p.m. of the next day
(D) 06.52 p.m. of the next day
Answer: (B)
32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:
List – I List – II
a. Tide i. A warm comparatively fast moving ocean current
b. Tsunami ii. A cold ocean current
c. Gulf stream iii. The periodic rise and fall of water
d. Labra done current iv. Rise of sea water in wave form due to seismic activity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (C)
33. Which one of the following ecosystem services is not a part of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report?
(A) Provisioning
(B) Promoting
(C) Supportive
(D) Regulating
Answer: (B)
34. Which one of the following places in India the first bird-sanctuary was set up?
(A) Vedanthangal
(B) Kundremukha
(C) Bannarghata
(D) Keoladeo
Answer: (A)
35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Physical factors provide only a partial and deterministic explanation of geographical distribution of population.
Reason (R): Man is by no means passive in his choice of areas for settlement and everywhere demonstrates an ability to exercise some control over his environment.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
36. Which one of the following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory?
(A) K3
(B) K4
(C) K7
(D) K9
Answer: (B)
37. Assertion (A): Post-industrial city is largely characterised by horizontal expansion.
Reason (R): Land prices are high in the central city.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
Answer: (A)
38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Cantonment i. Kochi
b. Transport ii. Bangalore
c. Mining iii. Mau
d. I.T. iv. Ankleshwar
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii i ii iv
Answer: (C)
39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Global urban population is not uniformly distributed by location and nearly two-thirds is relatively concentrated within low elevation coastal areas.
Reason (R): Soil fertility in the coastal areas caused concentration of rural settlements.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (A) is true.
Answer: (B)
40. Which one of the following stages of demographic transition model predicts “a-high birth but a-low death rate”?www.netugc.com
(A) First stage
(B) Second stage
(C) Third stage
(D) Late-second stage
Answer: (B)
41. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(State) (Rate of Literacy (%) at 2011 census)
a. Uttarakhand i. 69.7
b. Chhattisgarh ii. 70.0
c. Tamil Nadu iii. 60.2
d. Gujarat iv. 73.4
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (B)
42. Which one of the following is not an assumption or principle of the concentric zone model of urban land case?
(A) Cultural and social heterogeneity of the population
(B) Transport is equally easy, rapid and cheap in every direction within the city.
(C) None of districts is attractive due to differences in terrain.
(D) There is a concentration of heavy industry.
Answer: (C)
43. Who, amongst the following, defined Geography as a chorological science?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Richthofen
(C) Hettner
(D) P.E. James
Answer: (C)
44. Who, amongst the following, has propounded the concept of Time Space Geography?
(A) Hagerstrand
(B) Haggett
(C) Johnston
(D) Harvey
Answer: (A)
45. Match the following from the codes:
(Major Proponent) (Philosophy of Geography)
a. Gibson i. Idealism
b. Guelke ii. Realism
c. Peet iii. Behaviouralism
d. Wright and Kirk iv. Radicalism
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii i iii iv
Answer: (C)
46. Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon?
(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kochi
(D) Visakhapatnam
Answer: (C)
47. Truck farming is associated with
(A) Vegetables
(B) Milk
(C) Cereals
(D) Poultry
Answer: (A)
48. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is
(A) Rotation of crops
(B) Rotation of fields
(C) Single cropping
(D) Use of plenty of fertilizers
Answer: (B)
49. What is the common practice involved in shifting cultivation?
(A) Use of sophisticated machinery
(B) Large scale use of fertilizers
(C) Utilization of poor soils through ploughing / fallowing
(D) Maximum use of animal power
Answer: (C)
50. Under the scope of town planning in India is covered:
1. Urban renewal
2. Planning of urban amenities and facilities
3. Building of new towns
4. Building of metropolitan cities
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 are correct.
(B) Only 1 is correct.
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Answer: (C)
51. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Rivers i. Sand stone
b. Settlements ii. Gale
c. Winds iii. Levees
d. Rocks iv. Satellite
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
52. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Falkland current i. Warm current
b. Norwegian current ii. Cold current
c. Florida current iii. Atlantic Ocean
d. Okholsk current iv. Kamchetka Peninsula
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
53. Who has, amongst the followinggeographers, defined Geography of Public Finance ‘who gets what, where, and at what cost’?
(A) R.J. Chorley
(B) David Harvey
(C) P. Claval
(D) R.J. Bennett
Answer: (D)
54. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Natural Parks & Wild Life Sanctuaries) (States)
a. Nandankanan i. Maharashtra
b. Kaziranga ii. Madhya Pradesh
c. Bandhavgarh iii. Odisha
d. Melghat iv. Assam
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i iii ii
Answer: (C)
55. Which of the following is not a supervised image classification technique?
(A) Parallelopiped classifier
(B) Minimum distance to mean classifier
(C) Neural network analysis
(D) Gaussian maximum likelihood classifier
Answer: (C)
56. A meteor is
(A) Comet without a tail
(B) Detached piece of an asteroid
(C) Tiny star
(D) Piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space
Answer: (D)
57. Which one of the following tribes does not correctly matched?
(A) Batwa and Congo Basin
(B) Ruwala and Central Iran
(C) Inuit and Canada
(D) Yuklagir and Siberia
Answer: (B)
58. Which one of the following regions witnessed the growth of mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek?
(A) Temperate region
(B) Savanna region
(C) Mediterranean region
(D) Tundra region
Answer: (C)
59. Which of the following is not considered a geographic pattern?
(A) Centralized
(B) Distributive
(C) Linear
(D) Random
Answer: (B)
60. Machu Picchu of Inca civilization is located in
(A) Argentina
(B) Brazil
(C) Columbia
(D) Peru
Answer: (D)
61. In 1919, Mackinder renamed his ‘Pivot Area’ as ‘Heartland’ in famous book
(A) Foreign Affairs
(B) The Round World and the Winning of the Peace
(C) The Democratic Ideals and Reality
(D) World War and Geography
Answer: (C)
62. The objectives behind building the planned city of Chandigarh were
1. To build a city of modern India’s dreams.
2. To settle down refugees coming to India after the partition.
3. To develop an attractive tourist centre in Northwestern India.
4. To provide capital city to Truncated Punjab.
Codes:
(A) 2 and 4 are correct.
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(D) only 4 is correct.
Answer: (C)
63. Which of the following sentences is not a correct one?
(A) Utilitarian planning is a functional planning and it strives to achieve a supreme single specific goal.
(B) Sectoral planning is a coordinated planning with planning in various sectors in an integrated manner.
(C) Comprehensive planning has also been used with implicit connotation of integrated planning of all elements of asingle activity.
(D) Town planning is an expression of spatial planning of an urban system.
Answer: (B)
64. Several planned cities have been developed in India after Independence. Which one of the following is not a post-independence planned city?
(A) Gandhinagar
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bhubaneshwar
Answer: (C)
65. Which one of the following is not a measure of Central tendency?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Mean deviation
(C) Median
(D) Mode
Answer: (B)
66. Which one of the following Indian Remote Sensing Satellites, IRS-P4 is also known as
(A) Resourcesat
(B) Edusat
(C) Remotesat
(D) Oceansat
Answer: (D)
67. Which one of the following States has recorded the lowest human development index?
(A) Bihar
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Answer: (A)
68. Which one of the following group of States, which includes catchment area of Cauvery river basin, is correct?
(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Pondicherry
(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Pondicherry
Answer: (D)
69. Which one of the following is a centrographic measure?
(A) Geometric mean
(B) Arithmetic mean
(C) Mean centre
(D) Standard deviation
Answer: (C)
70. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Block Mountains i. Aravallies
b. Volcanic Mountains ii. Pennives
c. Relict Mountains iii. Vindhyachal
d. Fold Mountains iv. Mount Popa
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer: (D)
71. Which one of the following map scales is a large scale?www.netugc.com
(A) 1: 250,000
(B) 1: 25,000
(C) 1: 500,000
(D) 1: 50,000
Answer: (B)
72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Raster format data structure provides a greater computational efficiency.
Reason (R): The Raster format data is simple.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (C)
73. An original map has the RF–1/50,000 and R.F. of the new map will be 1/250,000. What is the correct proportion of enlargement/reduction as given below?
(A) Reduction 1/5
(B) Enlargement (5 times)
(C) Reduction 1/10
(D) Enlargement (10 times)
Answer: (A)
74. Which one of the following values of correlation coefficient (r) is not correctly matched degree of relationship?
(A) + 0.99 High
(B) + 0.50 Moderate
(C) – 0.01 Very low
(D) – 0.99 Nil
Answer: (D)
75. In which of the following year, IRS-1A was launched
(A) 1982
(B) 1987
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Answer: (C)
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