GEOGRAPHY QUESTION PAPER 2016 ODISHA SSB
1. The word “Lithosphere” means:
(A) Upper Crust plus Lower Crust
(B) Crust plus uppermost solid Mantle
(C) Asthenosphere plus Crust
(D) Inner solid core plus outer liquid core
Correct Answer: (B) Crust plus uppermost solid Mantle
Explanation:
The Lithosphere is the rigid outer layer of the Earth. It consists of:
The Earth’s crust
The uppermost solid part of the mantle
It is broken into tectonic plates which move over the semi-fluid asthenosphere.
2. What is isopeistic level?
(A) Shallowest depth below the Earth’s surface at which pressure is equal everywhere
(B) Shallowest depth at which salinity of sea water is equal
(C) Shallowest depth at which temperature within the Earth is equal
(D) Shallowest depth at which pressure is unequal everywhere
Correct Answer: (A) Shallowest depth below the Earth’s surface at which pressure is equal everywhere
Explanation:
The Isopeistic Level refers to a depth inside the Earth where pressure becomes equal in all directions. It is related to the concept of isostasy, which explains the balance of Earth’s crust.
3. Normal gravity:
(A) Is negative in continental areas and positive in oceanic areas
(B) Is negative in oceanic area and positive in continental areas
(C) Is very high in continental areas
(D) Is very low in oceanic areas
Correct Answer: (B) Is negative in oceanic area and positive in continental areas
Explanation:
Gravity anomalies vary due to differences in density:
Continental areas usually show positive gravity anomalies.
Oceanic regions generally show negative gravity anomalies because of differences in crustal structure and density.
4. Orogenesis deals with:
(A) Continental drift
(B) Origin of Ocean basins
(C) Formation of folds and faults
(D) Mountain building
Correct Answer: (D) Mountain building
Explanation:
Orogenesis means the process of mountain formation. It occurs mainly due to:
Plate tectonic movements
Folding
Faulting
Volcanic activity
Example: Formation of the Himalayas.
5. Internal heat responsible for Earth movement is generated by:
(A) Radioactive decay
(B) Rotational or tidal friction
(C) Primordial heat
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Earth’s internal heat comes from several sources:
Radioactive decay of elements like uranium
Primordial heat left from Earth’s formation
Rotational and tidal friction
These together drive plate tectonics and volcanic activities.
6. This is not associated with fissure lava flows:
(A) Volcanic Dykes
(B) Volcanic Plateau
(C) Volcanic neck
(D) Horizontal lava flows
Correct Answer: (C) Volcanic neck
Explanation:
Fissure eruptions produce:
Extensive lava plateaus
Horizontal lava layers
Volcanic dykes
A volcanic neck forms from magma solidifying inside the vent of a volcano and is generally linked with central volcanic eruptions, not fissure flows.
7. What is the physical identifying factor in granite gneiss?
(A) Very large crystals
(B) Banding or layering of crystals
(C) Large and small crystals randomly arranged
(D) Very small crystals
Correct Answer: (B) Banding or layering of crystals
Explanation:
Granite gneiss is a metamorphic rock characterized by:
Distinct bands or layers
Alternating light and dark minerals
This banded appearance is called gneissic structure.
8. Weathering involves:
(A) Climate
(B) In situ breakdown of earth materials
(C) Bulk transfer of rock masses from one place to another place
(D) Making of Arid landforms
Correct Answer: (B) In situ breakdown of earth materials
Explanation:
Weathering is the breakdown of rocks:
At or near Earth’s surface
Without movement of materials
“In situ” means the rocks disintegrate in the same place where they are found.
Types:
Physical weathering
Chemical weathering
Biological weathering
9. Mass wasting fundamentally needs this:
(A) Slope
(B) Water
(C) Gravity
(D) Wind
Correct Answer: (C) Gravity
Explanation:
Mass wasting refers to the downward movement of rock, soil, or debris under the influence of gravity.
Examples include:
Landslides
Rockfalls
Mudflows
Gravity is the essential force behind all mass wasting processes.
10. This is the basic requirement for Davis' cycle of erosion:
(A) Tectonic Stability
(B) Tectonic instability
(C) Arid Climate
(D) Glacial Climate
Correct Answer: (A) Tectonic Stability
Explanation:
The Davisian Cycle of Erosion proposed by William Morris Davis assumes:
Initial uplift of land
Followed by a long period of tectonic stability
This stability allows landscapes to pass through:
Youth
Maturity
Old age
11. This is indicator of high rate of uplift:
(A) Convex slope
(B) Concave slope
(C) Straight slope
(D) Concave-Convex slopes
Correct Answer: (A) Convex slope
Explanation:
A convex slope generally indicates:
Active erosion
Rapid uplift of land
It is commonly found in tectonically active mountainous regions.
12. This is very odd:
(A) Sand dunes along rivers
(B) Terraces along rivers
(C) Flood plains along rivers
(D) Horn like peaks in soft rocks under humid climate
Correct Answer: (D) Horn like peaks in soft rocks under humid climate
Explanation:
Sand dunes, terraces, and flood plains commonly occur near rivers.
Horn-like peaks are sharp glacial landforms usually formed in hard rocks under cold glacial conditions.
Thus, their occurrence in soft rocks under humid climate is unusual or “odd”.
13. Lateral moraines occur:
(A) In the middle of a glacial valley
(B) On the sides of a glacial valley
(C) At the snouts of the glaciers
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B) On the sides of a glacial valley
Explanation:
Lateral moraines are deposits of rock debris accumulated along the sides of glaciers.
Other moraine types:
Medial moraine → middle of glacier
Terminal moraine → snout/end of glacier
14. The word “Pedon” is associated with:
(A) Weathering
(B) Alluvium
(C) Soils
(D) Colluvium
Correct Answer: (C) Soils
Explanation:
A Pedon is the smallest three-dimensional unit of soil that displays all soil characteristics of a particular soil type.
It is an important concept in soil science (Pedology).
15. Wildlife is abundant in:
(A) Tropical Rain Forest
(B) Tropical Grasslands
(C) Boreal Forest
(D) Temperate Grasslands
Correct Answer: (A) Tropical Rain Forest
Explanation:
Amazon Rainforest and other tropical rainforests contain:
High rainfall
Dense vegetation
Warm climate
These conditions support the highest biodiversity and wildlife abundance on Earth.
16. Match the following correctly:
| Species | Region |
|---|---|
| (a) Bateleur Bird | (i) Indian Subcontinent |
| (b) Bison | (ii) Amazon Basin |
| (c) Piranhas | (iii) Africa |
| (d) Bustard | (iv) North America |
Correct Matching:
(a) Bateleur Bird → (iii) Africa
(b) Bison → (iv) North America
(c) Piranhas → (ii) Amazon Basin
(d) Bustard → (i) Indian Subcontinent
Correct Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
Bateleur bird is native to Africa.
Bison are mainly associated with North America.
Piranhas are freshwater fish found in the Amazon Basin.
Great Indian Bustard is found in the India.
17. Which of the following can be addressed as global environmental backlash?
(A) Greenhouse effect
(B) Acid rain
(C) Oil spills
(D) Drought
Correct Answer: (A) Greenhouse effect
Explanation:
The greenhouse effect is considered a global environmental issue because it affects the Earth’s climate system worldwide through global warming and climate change.
Acid rain → regional problem
Oil spills → localized marine pollution
Drought → climatic hazard, not always global
18. Consider the following statements and select the answer:
Statements:
(a) Radioactive compounds, oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are primary pollutants.
(b) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) and Ozone are secondary pollutants.
Options:
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Primary pollutants are emitted directly into the atmosphere.
Examples:Sulphur oxides
Nitrogen oxides
Radioactive pollutants
Secondary pollutants form through chemical reactions in the atmosphere.
Examples:Ozone
PAN (Peroxyacetyl Nitrate)
19. Which among the following is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the Earth's atmosphere?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Water Vapour
(C) Sulphur Dioxide
(D) Tropospheric Ozone
Correct Answer: (B) Water Vapour
Explanation:
Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and contributes greatly to the natural greenhouse effect.
Other greenhouse gases include:
Carbon dioxide
Methane
Ozone
20. The Temperate Grassland Biome is commonly known as:
(a) Steppe in Central Asia
(b) Prairie in North America
(c) Veld in South America
(d) Tundra in North America
Choose the correct option:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (d)
(D) (c) and (d)
Correct Answer: (A) (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Temperate grasslands are called:
Steppe in Central Asia
Prairie in North America
“Veld” is in South Africa, not South America.
“Tundra” is a cold biome, not temperate grassland.
21. Corals are:
(A) Precious stones
(B) Plants
(C) Organisms living in rivers
(D) Organisms living in sea
Correct Answer: (D) Organisms living in sea
Explanation:
Corals are tiny marine animals called polyps that live in colonies in seawater and build coral reefs using calcium carbonate.
22. Corals thrive in:
(A) Arctic zone
(B) Tropical zone only
(C) Tropical and equatorial zones
(D) Temperate climates
Correct Answer: (C) Tropical and equatorial zones
Explanation:
Corals require:
Warm water
Clear shallow seas
Sunlight
Therefore, they mainly thrive in tropical and equatorial oceans.
Example: Great Barrier Reef.
23. Daly's theory on the origin of coral reefs is basically:
(A) Connected with subsidence of sea floor
(B) Connected with glaciation
(C) Connected with emergence of sea floor
(D) Connected with tectonics
Correct Answer: (B) Connected with glaciation
Explanation:
Reginald Aldworth Daly proposed the Glacial Control Theory, which links coral reef formation with changes in sea level during glacial periods.
24. Which one is more in concentration in sea water?
(A) Chloride
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sulphate
(D) Sodium
Correct Answer: (A) Chloride
Explanation:
Among dissolved salts in seawater:
Chloride ions are the most abundant.
Sodium is the second most abundant.
25. Salinity is more:
(A) Off the Amazon estuary
(B) In the Mediterranean Sea
(C) In the Indian Ocean
(D) In the Pacific Ocean
Correct Answer: (B) In the Mediterranean Sea
Explanation:
The Mediterranean Sea has:
High evaporation
Low freshwater inflow
Limited water exchange
Therefore, salinity is very high there.
26. Thermocline in seas is normally observed:
(A) Between 2000–3000 m
(B) Between 1000–2000 m
(C) Between 0–200 m depth
(D) Between 200–1000 m depth
Correct Answer: (D) Between 200–1000 m depth
Explanation:
The thermocline is a zone where ocean temperature decreases rapidly with depth. It generally occurs between:
200 m and 1000 m depth
27. Thermohaline circulation of ocean waters is influenced by:
(A) Density of sea water
(B) Low salinity of sea water
(C) Temperature of sea water
(D) Global wind circulations
Correct Answer: (A) Density of sea water
Explanation:
Thermohaline circulation depends on:
Temperature (“thermo”)
Salinity (“haline”)
These factors control the density of seawater, which drives deep ocean circulation.
28. Generally in a wave water particles/molecules move:
(A) Along with trough and crest of the wave
(B) Vertically up and down
(C) In circles
(D) Horizontally
Correct Answer: (C) In circles
Explanation:
In ocean waves:
Water particles move in circular orbits
Energy moves forward, but water mostly stays in place
29. Waves break:
(A) When the depth of water is less than half the wavelength
(B) When the depth of water is exactly the same as the wavelength
(C) When the depth of water is more than the wavelength
(D) In shallow seas
Correct Answer: (A) When the depth of water is less than half the wavelength
Explanation:
As waves approach shallow water:
Friction with the seabed slows the lower part
Wave height increases
The wave finally breaks
This generally happens when water depth becomes less than half the wavelength.
30. Semidiurnal tides are:
(A) Two low tides and one high tide
(B) Two high tides and two low tides of different heights
(C) One high tide and one low tide
(D) Two high tides and two low tides
Correct Answer: (D) Two high tides and two low tides
Explanation:
A semidiurnal tide pattern has:
Two high tides
Two low tides
of nearly equal height every lunar day.
31. What are we adding to the atmosphere?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen
Correct Answer: (C) Carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Human activities such as:
Burning fossil fuels
Deforestation
Industrialization
are increasing the amount of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the atmosphere, contributing to global warming.
32. Tropopause, stratopause and mesopause are:
(A) Sharp boundaries
(B) Definite boundaries
(C) Transitional boundaries
(D) Indefinite boundaries
Correct Answer: (C) Transitional boundaries
Explanation:
These “pauses” are transition zones between atmospheric layers:
Tropopause → between troposphere and stratosphere
Stratopause → between stratosphere and mesosphere
Mesopause → between mesosphere and thermosphere
They are not perfectly sharp boundaries.
33. Scattering is more:
(A) In blue radiation
(B) In green radiation
(C) In red radiation
(D) In infrared radiation
Correct Answer: (A) In blue radiation
Explanation:
Shorter wavelengths scatter more in the atmosphere.
Blue light has a shorter wavelength than red light, so it scatters strongly, making the sky appear blue.
34. Wind normally should move across the isobars from high to low pressure. But the wind that moves along the isobars is called:
(A) Gradient wind
(B) Geostrophic wind
(C) Friction layer wind
(D) Pressure gradient wind
Correct Answer: (B) Geostrophic wind
Explanation:
A geostrophic wind blows parallel to isobars due to balance between:
Pressure gradient force
Coriolis force
It usually occurs in the upper atmosphere where friction is negligible.
35. This body reflects radiation well:
(A) Fresh snow
(B) Clouds
(C) Water
(D) Dry white sand
Correct Answer: (A) Fresh snow
Explanation:
Fresh snow has very high albedo (reflectivity).
It reflects most incoming solar radiation back into space.
36. In middle and higher latitudes insolation over oceans is:
(A) Same as over land
(B) Remain the same always
(C) Higher
(D) Lower
Correct Answer: (C) Higher
Explanation:
Oceans receive relatively higher effective insolation because:
Water heats slowly
Reflection varies differently than land
Oceans retain heat longer
37. Air pressure away from the surface of the Earth:
(A) Increases exponentially
(B) Decreases exponentially
(C) Decreases uniformly
(D) Increase uniformly
Correct Answer: (B) Decreases exponentially
Explanation:
As altitude increases:
Air density decreases
Atmospheric pressure falls rapidly
The decrease is exponential rather than uniform.
38. Local and regional wind systems are basically:
(A) Influenced by revolution of the Earth
(B) Influenced by rotation of the Earth
(C) Circulations because of coriolis force
(D) Thermal circulations
Correct Answer: (D) Thermal circulations
Explanation:
Local winds like:
Sea breeze
Land breeze
Mountain breeze
develop mainly because of temperature differences and are therefore thermal circulations.
39. If Earth is homogeneous in surface composition, temperature distribution would be:
(A) Strictly latitudinal
(B) Not very strictly latitudinal
(C) Strictly meridional
(D) Not very strictly meridional
Correct Answer: (A) Strictly latitudinal
Explanation:
If Earth’s surface were uniform everywhere:
Temperature would mainly depend on latitude
Equator would be hottest
Poles would be coldest
Thus temperature zones would follow latitude strictly.
40. Specific mass of water vapour relative to the mass of all other gases for a sample of air is:
(A) Atmospheric humidity
(B) Relative humidity
(C) Mixing ratio
(D) Saturation mixing ratio
Correct Answer: (C) Mixing ratio
Explanation:
Mixing ratio refers to:
The mass of water vapour
relative toThe mass of dry air
It is commonly expressed in grams per kilogram.
41. Who among the following is known as real founder of human geography?
(A) Griffith Taylor
(B) Friedrich Ratzel
(C) Vidal de la Blache
(D) Jean Brunhes
Correct Answer: (D) Jean Brunhes
Explanation:
Jean Brunhes is often regarded as the real founder of Human Geography because of his systematic study of human activities and their relation to the environment.
42. Munda tribe is mostly found in:
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
Correct Answer: (B) Jharkhand
Explanation:
The Munda tribe is predominantly found in Jharkhand, especially in the Chotanagpur Plateau region.
43. “Resources as means of attaining given ends” is given by:
(A) Zimmerman
(B) J. M. Keynes
(C) Ratzel
(D) Humboldt
Correct Answer: (A) Zimmerman
Explanation:
Erich Walter Zimmermann defined resources as:
“Resources are not, they become.”
He emphasized that resources are means to achieve human goals.
44. The largest food grain producer country in the world is:
(A) Brazil
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) China
Correct Answer: (D) China
Explanation:
China is the world’s largest producer of food grains due to:
Large agricultural output
Extensive cultivation
Huge population demand
45. The concept of neodeterminism was put forward by:
(A) Vidal de la Blache
(B) Griffith Taylor
(C) Al-Masudi
(D) Ellsworth Huntington
Correct Answer: (B) Griffith Taylor
Explanation:
Thomas Griffith Taylor proposed Neo-determinism, also known as:
“Stop-and-go determinism”
It suggests humans can modify nature, but only within environmental limits.
46. A geographical area with a certain functional coherence is called:
(A) Natural region
(B) Functional region
(C) Economic region
(D) Formal Region
Correct Answer: (B) Functional region
Explanation:
A functional region is organized around:
A central node
Functional relationships
Examples:
Metropolitan regions
Market areas
Transport networks
47. The industrial location theory postulated by Alfred Weber was based on:
(A) Market area analysis
(B) Profit maximization approach
(C) Least cost approach
(D) Cost-revenue approach
Correct Answer: (C) Least cost approach
Explanation:
Alfred Weber proposed that industries choose locations where:
Transportation cost
Labour cost
Agglomeration cost
are minimized. Hence it is called the Least Cost Theory.
48. In Walter Christaller's hierarchy of central places the K value has been grouped into:
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Correct Answer: (C) 7
Explanation:
Walter Christaller proposed Central Place Theory and classified settlements using different K-values representing marketing, transport, and administrative principles. The hierarchy is generally grouped into seven orders.
49. In Christaller's hierarchy system, the ranking of K value for transporting principle is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Correct Answer: (C) 4
Explanation:
In Christaller’s Central Place Theory:
K = 3 → Marketing principle
K = 4 → Transport principle
K = 7 → Administrative principle
The transport principle minimizes transportation routes.
50. Red soils in tropical regions are formed by:
(A) Weathering of iron bearing metamorphic rocks
(B) Weathering of Igneous rocks
(C) Weathering of basaltic rocks
(D) Leaching out top layer of soil
Correct Answer: (A) Weathering of iron bearing metamorphic rocks
Explanation:
Red soils derive their color from iron oxide and are mainly formed through weathering of iron-rich crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
51. The ratio of gross cropped area to the net area sown expressed in percentage is known as:
(A) Capability of cropping
(B) Intensity of cropping
(C) Pattern of cropping
(D) Land capability
Correct Answer: (B) Intensity of cropping
Explanation:
Cropping intensity measures how intensively land is cultivated.
\text{Cropping Intensity} = \frac{\text{Gross Cropped Area}}{\text{Net Area Sown}} \times 100
Higher percentage means land is cultivated more than once a year.
52. Based on geographical and agricultural regions the Planning Commission of India has divided the country into the following number of geo-ecological regions:
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 17
Correct Answer: (D) 17
Explanation:
The Planning Commission of India divided India into 17 geo-ecological regions for planning and development purposes.
53. As on March 26, 2016 the population of India is:
(A) 1.32 billion
(B) 1.20 billion
(C) 1.15 billion
(D) 1.00 billion
Correct Answer: (A) 1.32 billion
Explanation:
By 2016, India had an estimated population of around 1.32 billion people.
54. The Hindustan Steel Limited at Rourkela in Odisha is established in collaboration with:
(A) United Kingdom
(B) Germany
(C) Russia
(D) United States of America
Correct Answer: (B) Germany
Explanation:
The Rourkela Steel Plant was established with German collaboration.
55. The concept of continentality was given by:
(A) Ritter
(B) Ratzel
(C) Humboldt
(D) Hettner
Correct Answer: (C) Humboldt
Explanation:
Alexander von Humboldt introduced the concept of continentality, referring to the climatic influence of distance from oceans.
56. Which one of the following approaches is related to historical perspective of rural settlement studies?
(A) Behavioural approach
(B) Spatial approach
(C) Ecological approach
(D) Retrogressive approach
Correct Answer: (D) Retrogressive approach
Explanation:
The retrogressive approach studies rural settlements by tracing their historical evolution and past development patterns.
57. Sectoral growth model is related to:
(A) Compact settlement
(B) Scattered settlement
(C) Fragmented settlement
(D) Linear settlement
Correct Answer: (A) Compact settlement
Explanation:
The sectoral growth model explains urban expansion in sectors around transport routes, generally resulting in compact settlement patterns.
58. The concept sustainable development for regional growth came into being in:
(A) 1980
(B) 1987
(C) 1990
(D) 1970
Correct Answer: (B) 1987
Explanation:
The idea gained worldwide importance after the publication of the Brundtland Report in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development.
59. The inhabitants of Nicobar Islands belong to this race:
(A) Caucasoid
(B) Australoid
(C) Mongoloid
(D) Proto-Australoid
Correct Answer: (B) Australoid
Explanation:
The tribal inhabitants of the Nicobar Islands are generally classified under the Australoid racial group.
60. Von Thünen's theory related to:
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industries
(C) Rural development
(D) Urban development
Correct Answer: (A) Agriculture
Explanation:
Johann Heinrich von Thünen proposed an agricultural land-use model explaining crop distribution around a market.
61. Mangroves are abundant along:
(A) West Bengal coast
(B) Tamil Nadu coast
(C) Maharashtra coast
(D) Gujarat coast
Correct Answer: (A) West Bengal coast
Explanation:
The Sundarbans on the West Bengal coast contain the largest mangrove forests in India.
62. In general, the coast of Odisha is a:
(A) Deltaic coast
(B) Sedimentary coast
(C) Rocky coast
(D) Estuarine coast
Correct Answer: (A) Deltaic coast
Explanation:
The coast of Odisha is mainly deltaic because large rivers like:
Mahanadi
Brahmani
Baitarani
form extensive deltas before entering the Bay of Bengal.
63. Marmagao port is located:
(A) In Maharashtra
(B) In Karnataka
(C) At Goa
(D) In Gujarat
Correct Answer: (C) At Goa
Explanation:
Mormugao Port is a major natural port located in Goa on the western coast of India.
64. Tropical rain forest climate is found along the coast of:
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala
Correct Answer: (D) Kerala
Explanation:
Kerala experiences:
Heavy rainfall
High humidity
Warm temperature throughout the year
These conditions support tropical rainforest climate.
65. This one is the largest river basin:
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Cauvery
Correct Answer: (B) Godavari
Explanation:
Godavari River has the largest river basin among the given options and is often called the “Dakshin Ganga”.
66. This state is covered mostly by Archaean rocks:
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Odisha
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: (C) Odisha
Explanation:
Odisha contains extensive Archaean rock formations, especially in the northern and western regions.
67. Red and yellow soils predominate in:
(A) North-west Odisha
(B) South-west Odisha
(C) Eastern Odisha
(D) North-east Odisha
Correct Answer: (B) South-west Odisha
Explanation:
Red and yellow soils are widely distributed in the upland and plateau regions of south-western Odisha due to weathering of crystalline rocks.
68. Tanks are popular source of irrigation in:
(A) Kashmir
(B) Assam
(C) Southern states of India
(D) West Bengal
Correct Answer: (C) Southern states of India
Explanation:
Tank irrigation is common in southern India because:
Rivers are seasonal
Hard rocky terrain supports tank construction
States include:
Tamil Nadu
Karnataka
Andhra Pradesh
69. Who is the first to work on the physiographic divisions of India?
(A) R. L. Singh
(B) S. P. Chatterjee
(C) B. N. Sinha
(D) Enayat Ahmad
Correct Answer: (B) S. P. Chatterjee
Explanation:
S. P. Chatterjee made pioneering contributions to the physiographic regionalization of India.
70. Doda Betta is the highest peak in:
(A) Nilgiris
(B) Western Ghats
(C) Eastern Ghats
(D) Aravallis
Correct Answer: (A) Nilgiris
Explanation:
Doddabetta Peak is the highest peak of the Nilgiri Hills.
71. Southern Odisha is endowed with:
(A) Coal deposits
(B) Limestone deposits
(C) Oil and gas deposits
(D) Bauxite deposits
Correct Answer: (D) Bauxite deposits
Explanation:
Southern Odisha, especially the Eastern Ghats region, is rich in bauxite reserves.
72. This is an example of lagoonal lake:
(A) Chilika
(B) Wular
(C) Sambhar
(D) Lonar
Correct Answer: (A) Chilika
Explanation:
Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon formed along the coast of the Bay of Bengal.
73. Semi-arid and Steppe climate is found in:
(A) Parts of Karnataka and Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Odisha
Correct Answer: (A) Parts of Karnataka and Maharashtra
Explanation:
Interior regions of:
Karnataka
Maharashtra
experience semi-arid steppe climate due to low rainfall.
74. Montane wet temperate vegetation is found in:
(A) Kashmir Himalayas
(B) Eastern Himalayas
(C) Southern Peninsular India
(D) Central Himalayas
Correct Answer: (B) Eastern Himalayas
Explanation:
The Eastern Himalayas receive heavy rainfall and support dense montane wet temperate forests.
75. Among the large physiographic divisions leaving the coastal plains Odisha comes under:
(A) Central Highlands
(B) Peninsular Plateaus
(C) The Great Plains
(D) East Coastal Plains
Correct Answer: (B) Peninsular Plateaus
Explanation:
Most of Odisha belongs to the Peninsular Plateau region except its coastal plains.
76. Mahanadi surface delta deposits belong to:
(A) Cambrian
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Cenozoic
(D) Holocene
Correct Answer: (D) Holocene
Explanation:
The deltaic deposits of the Mahanadi Delta are geologically recent and belong mainly to the Holocene epoch.
77. Chilika Lake owes its origin to:
(A) Marine activity
(B) Karst activity
(C) Glacial activity
(D) Fluvial activity
Correct Answer: (A) Marine activity
Explanation:
Chilika Lake formed mainly due to marine processes such as coastal deposition and barrier formation.
78. Rushikulya beach is a famous site because:
(A) Of a tourism potential
(B) It is the widest beach
(C) Olive Ridley turtles visit it for nesting
(D) The beach sands contain rich monazite deposits
Correct Answer: (C) Olive Ridley turtles visit it for nesting
Explanation:
Rushikulya Beach is internationally famous as a nesting site for Olive Ridley sea turtles.
79. In the Eastern Ghats in Odisha, this is the highest peak:
(A) Potangi
(B) Deomali
(C) Gajapati
(D) Galikonda
Correct Answer: (B) Deomali
Explanation:
Deomali is the highest mountain peak in Odisha and the Eastern Ghats of the state.
80. Odisha figures in the technical name of this crop:
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Maize
Correct Answer: (A) Rice
Explanation:
The scientific name of rice is:
Oryza\ sativa
The word “Oryza” is believed to have linguistic association with “Odisha” or ancient regional names connected with rice cultivation.
81. Cartography:
(A) Is an art
(B) Is an art as well as science
(C) Is technology
(D) Is a tool
Correct Answer: (B) Is an art as well as science
Explanation:
Cartography is the science and art of map-making.
It involves:
Scientific accuracy
Artistic presentation
Technical design
82. A map is:
(A) A true representation of the real world
(B) An abstract representation of the real world
(C) A false representation of the real world
(D) Representation of the real world on 1 to 1 scale
Correct Answer: (B) An abstract representation of the real world
Explanation:
A map simplifies reality by selecting important features and symbols. Therefore, it is an abstract rather than a complete representation.
83. One centimetre to a kilometre:
(A) Is a statement scale
(B) Is a representative fraction
(C) Is a graphic scale
(D) Is a time scale
Correct Answer: (A) Is a statement scale
Explanation:
A statement scale expresses map scale in words.
Example:
1\ \text{cm} = 1\ \text{km}
This is different from representative fraction such as 1:100000.
84. A Survey of India topographic map on 1:50,000 scale:
(A) Is a guide map
(B) Is a thematic map
(C) Is a general purpose map
(D) Is a special purpose map
Correct Answer: (C) Is a general purpose map
Explanation:
Survey of India topographic maps show:
Relief
Drainage
Settlements
Roads
Vegetation
Hence they are general purpose maps.
85. A longitude is defined by:
(A) A vertical angle
(B) Angular distance
(C) Horizontal lines
(D) A horizontal angle
Correct Answer: (B) Angular distance
Explanation:
Longitude measures the angular distance east or west from the Prime Meridian.
86. What is the point of origin for longitudes and latitudes?
(A) Centre of the Earth
(B) Surface of the Earth
(C) Mean sea level of the Earth
(D) Datum level
Correct Answer: (A) Centre of the Earth
Explanation:
Latitudes and longitudes are angular measurements taken from the Earth’s center.
87. The length of one degree longitude:
(A) Is same everywhere
(B) Depends upon latitudes where it is measured
(C) Is different everywhere
(D) Depends upon equator
Correct Answer: (B) Depends upon latitudes where it is measured
Explanation:
The distance between longitudes decreases toward the poles because meridians converge.
Maximum at Equator
Zero at poles
88. Geoid is determined by:
(A) Tidal levels
(B) Spheroid
(C) Mean sea level
(D) Gravity
Correct Answer: (D) Gravity
Explanation:
The geoid represents the Earth’s gravity-defined surface corresponding approximately to mean sea level.
89. GIS is a system because:
(A) It has interconnected and interdependent parts
(B) It works in a certain order
(C) It works in a sequence
(D) It is a single unit with no parts
Correct Answer: (A) It has interconnected and interdependent parts
Explanation:
Geographic Information System includes:
Hardware
Software
Data
Methods
People
All these components work together as a system.
90. Using geographical knowledge to solve practical problems is:
(A) Economic geography
(B) Regional geography
(C) Applied geography
(D) Systematic geography
Correct Answer: (C) Applied geography
Explanation:
Applied geography uses geographic principles to solve real-world issues such as:
Urban planning
Disaster management
Resource management
91. A map is:
(A) An orthographic projection
(B) A perspective projection
(C) Similar to remote sensing data
(D) Similar to aerial photos
Correct Answer: (A) An orthographic projection
Explanation:
Maps are orthographic representations because they are prepared using perpendicular projection methods.
92. There is no relief displacement:
(A) In a map
(B) In aerial photos
(C) Radar remote sensing data
(D) Optical remote sensing data
Correct Answer: (A) In a map
Explanation:
Relief displacement occurs in aerial photographs due to perspective geometry, but properly prepared maps remove such distortions.
93. IFOV determines:
(A) The pixel in remote sensing data
(B) The total east-west coverage of remote sensing data
(C) The total north-south coverage of remote sensing data
(D) The scale of remote sensing data
Correct Answer: (A) The pixel in remote sensing data
Explanation:
IFOV means Instantaneous Field of View.
It determines the ground area represented by a single pixel.
94. Urban heat island studies are part of:
(A) Pure climatology
(B) Pure meteorology
(C) Applied Geography
(D) Weather data collection
Correct Answer: (C) Applied Geography
Explanation:
Urban heat island studies examine how urbanization changes local climate and are important in urban planning and environmental management.
95. In optical remote sensing to get land-water contrast which band is good?
(A) Blue band
(B) Green band
(C) Red band
(D) IR band
Correct Answer: (D) IR band
Explanation:
Water absorbs infrared radiation strongly, while land reflects it.
Therefore infrared bands clearly distinguish land from water.
96. Geometric average can be simplified by:
(A) Change of origin
(B) Change of scale
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Change of area
Correct Answer: (B) Change of scale
Explanation:
The geometric mean calculation is often simplified using logarithmic transformation and change of scale methods.
97. Value of the variate which has the maximum frequency is:
(A) Mode
(B) Median
(C) Mean
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Correct Answer: (A) Mode
Explanation:
The mode is the value occurring most frequently in a dataset.
Example:
2, 3, 3, 5, 7
→ Mode = 3
98. Lorenz curve has:
(A) Cumulative percentage
(B) Exponential percentage
(C) Simple percentage
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (A) Cumulative percentage
Explanation:
The Lorenz Curve is used to show inequality in:
Income
Wealth
Population distribution
It is drawn using cumulative percentages of:
Population
Income/resources
The farther the curve from the line of equality, the greater the inequality.
99. Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation is:
(A) Graphic
(B) Mathematical
(C) Positional
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Mathematical
Explanation:
Karl Pearson developed a mathematical method to measure correlation between two variables.
The coefficient is represented by:
r = \frac{\sum (x-\bar{x})(y-\bar{y})}{\sqrt{\sum (x-\bar{x})^2 \sum (y-\bar{y})^2}}
Where:
( r = +1 ) → perfect positive correlation
( r = -1 ) → perfect negative correlation
( r = 0 ) → no correlation
100. If the frequency curve has a longer tail to the right, skewness will be:
(A) Negative
(B) Zero
(C) Positive
(D) Uncertain
Correct Answer: (C) Positive
Explanation:
A distribution with:
Longer tail toward the right side
Most values concentrated on the left
is called positively skewed or right-skewed.
Characteristics:
Mean > Median > Mode
0 Comments