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UGC NET July 2016 Paper-II and III Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers

 UGC NET 2016 Paper-II and III Geography Previous Year Paper with Answers

NTA  NET SEPTEMBER ,2020 ক্র্যাকিংয়ের জন্য, বিভিন্ন বিষয়ে পরীক্ষার্থী, তারা আবেদন করছে তার জন্য বিগত বছরের প্রশ্নপত্র গুলি অনুশীলন করতে হবে। এটি নির্ভুলতার সাথে সর্বনিম্ন সময়ে সর্বাধিক প্রশ্নের সঠিক চেষ্টা করার তাদের গতি উন্নত করতে সহায়তা করবে। সুতরাং, এই নিবন্ধে আমরা ইউজিসি নেট July 2016 পেপার -2 ও 3 পোস্ট করা হচ্ছে।

Geography Paper 2 2016 july



1. Normal Cycle of Erosion is associated with

(1) Glacial Erosion

(2) Fluvial Erosion

(3) Marine Erosion

(4) Wind Erosion

Answer: 2

2. The Drainage pattern which is not controlled by the parent structure on which it flows is termed as

(1) Consequent

(2) Subsequent

(3) Insequent

(4) Resequent

Answer: 3

3. The term “Swash” refers to

(1) Backward movement of sea water at the beach after the breaking of a wave.

(2) Oblique movement of sea water at the beach after the breaking of a wave.

(3) Forward movement of sea water up the beach after the breaking of a wave.

(4) Sideward movement of sea water up the beach after the breaking of a wave.

Answer: 3

4. Which one of the following is not a glacio-fluvial depositional feature?

(1) Drumlin

(2) Esker

(3) Horn

(4) Kame

Answer: 3

5. The unconsolidated rock material deposited by surface wash at the base of a cliff is called

(1) Alluvium

(2) Colluvium

(3) Moraines

(4) Silt

Answer: 2

6. Which one of the following represents a source of atmospheric energy?

(1) Infrared radiation emitted downward from clouds

(2) Visible radiation scattered upward into the space

(3) Latent heat released

(4) Albedo of the earth and the atmosphere

Answer: 3

7. Which one of the following processes is important for the formation of lightning in a developing cloud?

(1) Absorption of solar cosmic rays

(2) Small laps rate

(3) Strong vertical air currents

(4) Heavy rainfall

Answer: 3

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labeled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subjected to equal amount of inslation

Reason (R): The land is opaque while water is transparent to solar radiation.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is false.

Answer: 1
9. Which one of the ‘C’ types of climate receives the bulk of its precipitation during the cold season?

(1) Cfa

(2) Cs

(3) Cwa

(4) Cfc

Answer: 2

10. Which one of the following statement is not true about the Coriolis force?

(1) It is the effect of earth’s rotation.

(2) It is maximum over polar region.

(3) It is directly related to frictional force.

(4) It is proportional to wind speed.

Answer: 4

11. Identify the correct statement pertaining to the Mid-Atlantic Ridge from the floor of Atlantic Ocean among the following:

(1) Almost 3 km above

(2) Almost 4 km above

(3) Almost 5 km above

(4) Almost 6 km above

Answer: 1

12. The coral reefs that are generally found attached to the shore with an intervening shallow Channel or a lagoon is called

(1) Barrier reef

(2) Patch reef

(3) Ribbon reef

(4) Fringing reef

Answer: 4

13. If Kyoto protocol is for Carbon-di-oxide then Montreal protocol is for

(1) Methane

(2) Chlorofluorocarbons

(3) Carbon-di-oxide

(4) Ozone

Answer: 2

14. Identify the correct statement regarding variation in density of ocean water and air at the same temperature.

(1) Ocean water is 800 times more denser than air.

(2) Ocean water is 600 times more denser than air.

(3) Ocean water is 400 times more denser than air.

(4) Ocean water is 200 times more denser than air.

Answer: 1

15. Which one of the following bays has the highest tides in the world?

(1) Bay of Bengal

(2) Hudson Bay

(3) Bay of Fundy

(4) Bay of Khambat

Answer: 3

16. Who among the following pleaded that “history be treated geographically and geography be treated historically”?

(1) Holmes

(2) Herodotus

(3) Hecate us

(4) Thales of Militus

Answer: 2

17. Which one of the following is the philosophical basis of Quantitative revolution?

(1) Positivism

(2) Existentialism

(3) Idealism

(4) Probabalism

Answer: 1

18. The statement that “Egypt is the gift of the river Nile” is attributed to

(1) Aristotle

(2) Strabo

(3) Herodotus

(4) Seneca

Answer: 3

19. Who among the following scholars made corrections to Ptolemy’s Book?

(1) Al-Masudi

(2) Al-Idrisi

(3) AI-BAruni

(4) Ibn-Khaldun

Answer: 2

20. Who among the following developed the concept of ‘Mental Map’?

(1) Downs and Stea

(2) Saarinen

(3) Gould and White

(4) Boulding and Haggerstrand

Answer: 3

21. Match List –I with List –II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Concepts)List – II (Definitions)
I. Continuum of urban SizesA. Group of towns of decreasing but approximately equal size and importance
II. Losch ModelB. Relationship between the largest city and second largest city
III. Urban HierarchyC. Various hexagonal systems operate at different levels and are superimposed on each other
IV. Primate CityD. Gradual and continuous decrease of urban population size with descending rank

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)DCAB
(2)BACD
(3)CBDA
(4)ADBC

Answer: 1

22. Which one of the following authors used the formula where, represents. Population density (d) at a distance x form the city centre, the centre density, e an exponent Of distance and b the density gradient, to describe the pattern of population density in any city?

(1) C. Clark

(2) B.J.L. Berry

(3) J.W. Simmonds

(4) W. Isard

Answer: 1

23. Which one of the following figures of total population of India (Census 2011) is correct?

(1) 1,21,08,54,977

(2) 1,21,04,74,877

(3) 1,21,03,64,957

(4) 1,21,05,44,777

Answer: 1

24. The rapid growth phase of India population was lying between of the following time periods?

(1) 1901-1921

(2) 1921 – 1951

(3) 1951-1981

(4) 1981 – 2001

Answer: 3

25. The second doubling period of world’s human population was between which of the following time slabs?

(1) 1650- 1850

(2) 1750 – 1950

(3) 1850 – 1930

(4) 1850 – 1950

Answer: 3

26. Which one of the following agricultural geographic approaches is correct to study crop-diversification?

(1) Commodity

(2) Systematic

(3) Regional

(4) Behavioural

Answer: 3

27 Which one of the following soils is commonly known as ‘self-mulching soil’?

(1) Grey Soil

(2) Red Soil

(3) Brown Soil

(4) Black Soil

Answer: 4

28. The concept of liner market price boundary between the market area of two competing firms was given by

(1) A. Weber

(2) T. Palander

(3) E. Hoover

(4) A. Losch

Answer: 2

29. Which one of the following factors is not a reason for government to concentrate on transport policies?

(1) Social

(2) Economic

(3) Cultural

(4) Political

Answer: 3

30. Which one of the following industries is called as heavy engineering industry?

(1) Heavy Electricals

(2) Heavy Machinery

(3) Glass

(4) Iron and Steel

Answer: 2

31. Who among the following gave the concept of Rimland Theory?

(1) Ratzel

(2) Spykman

(3) Griffith Taylor

(4) Mackinder

Answer: 2

32. How many major human races were identified by Griffith Taylor?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Answer: 3

33. In which year Mackinder again demarcated the world island including Africa?

(1) 1922

(2) 1925

(3) 1919

(4) 1917

Answer: 3

34. The Red Indians or the American Indian belongs to

(1) Caucasoid Race

(2) Mongoloid Race

(3) Austraoloid Race

(4) Negrito Race

Answer: 2
35. Which one of the following terms denotes the net population increase of towns and cities?

(1) Urban Growth

(2) Population Growth

(3) Urbanisation

(4) Urban Area

Answer: 1

36. Which one of the following processes is not associated with planning?

(1) Perception

(2) Revelation

(3) Preparation

(4) Evolution

Answer: 4

37. Who is regarded as the father of Regional Science?

(1) Louis Lefeber

(2) Walter Isard

(3) Harvey S. Perloff

(4) john M. Cumberland

Answer: 2

38. Which one of the following scholars believed that “every deliberate action must start in the mind, the realm of thought. It must be conceived and rehearsed in the realm of thought before it can take place in the physical…..”

(1) Lewis Mumford

(2) Patrick Geddes

(3) Chadwich

(4) Benton MacKaye

Answer: 4

39. The surveys that are conducted to identify deteriorated or deficient area in development Are termed as

(1) Socio-economic surveys

(2) Structural surveys

(3) Environmental Quality surveys

(4) Diagnostic surveys

Answer: 4

40. The largest milk product state of India is

(1) Gujarat

(2) Punjab

(3) Uttar Pradesh

(4) Rajasthan

Answer: 3

41. Which one of following groups of state accounts for about 90% of the annual coal production in India?

(1) Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal

(2) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

(3) Jharkhand, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh

(4) Jharkhand, Orissa and West Bengal

Answer: 4

42. In which of the following years, India became the 7th largest manufacturer of vehicles in the world?

(1) 2007

(2) 2008

(3) 2009

(4) 2010

Answer: 3

43. Given below are two statement, one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Wheat producing area confine to sub-humid and semi-arial India

Reason (R): This crop does not require plenty of stagnant water

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2

44. In which state of India Subansiri Hydropower project is located?

(1) Manipur

(2) Meghalaya

(3) Arunachal Pradesh

(4) Tamil Nadu

Answer: 3

45. Which one of the following software is not a GIS software?

(1) AutoCAD

(2) Map Info

(3) ERDAS

(4) Arc view

Answer: 1

46. Match List – I with List –II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (R.F) List – II (Level of Scale)
I. 1: 2,50,000  A. Cadastral
II. 1: 50,00,000B. Large
III. III. 1: 25,000C. Medium
IV. 1: 4,000 D. Small

  Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)CDAB
(2)CABD
(3)ABCD
(4)CDBA

Answer: 4

47. Which one of the following areal extent is represented by an area bounded by a square of 3 cm × 3 cm on a 1:50,000 scale topographical sheet?

(1) 9.00 km²

(2) 1.00 km²

(3) 3.20 km²

(4) 2.25 km²

Answer: 4

48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Change detection in remote sensing is the process of identifying differences in the state of an object or phenomenon

Reason (R): The use of GIS facilitates for digital change detection

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given
List – I     (Scholars)  List – II  (Global strategic views)
I. Seversky, A.N.P.A. Sea power
II. MackinderB. Rimland theory
III. Spykman, N.J.C. Air power
IV. Mahan, A.T.D. Land power

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ABCD
(2)CDBA
(3)BADC
(4)DCAB

Answer: 2

50. The scale on the aerial photography is variable on account of which of the following?

(1) Shadows of the objects

(2) Texture of the objects

(3) Relief of the ground

(4) Shadows and relief both

Answer: 3


PAPER - 3

1. A drainage pattern which is not related to the structure of the region is known as

(1) Radial drainage

(2) Trellis drainage

(3) Dendritic drainage

(4) Superimposed drainage

Answer: 4

2. Crickmay while disagreeing with Davis supplemented peneplain with the terms

(1) Pediplain

(2) Panplane

(3) Etchplain

(4) Structural plain

Answer: 2

3. Which of the following is strongly presumptive of fault line scrap?

(1) Superimposed drainage

(2) Frequent severe earthquakes

(3) Actual fault plane identified along the scrap

(4) Poor correlation between rock resistance and topographic form

Answer: 4

4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Deep chemical decay of rocks is one of the outstanding features of humid tropical regions

Reason (R): Intensity of chemical weathering depends to a large extent on abundance of water and higher air temperature

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4)

(A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The islands along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge are highly prone to volcanic activity

Reason (R): The sea-floor spreading is the main cause of earthquakes in the Atlantic Ocean

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

6. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I (Authors) List – II (Title of the Book)
I. Woolridge and MorganA. Principles of Geomorphology
II. ThornburyB. Geomorphology
III. Von Richthofen      C. Spirit and Purpose of Geography
IV. SteersD. Unstable Earth

 Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ABCD
(2)BCAD
(3)CABD
(4)DBAC

Answer: 3

7. Which one of the following arrangements of Pleistocene Ice age is in a correct chronological order?

(1) Mindel – Würm – Gunz – Rim

(2) Gunz – Mindel – Rim – Würm

(3) Würm – Mindel – Rim – Gunz

(4) Rim – Mindel – Würm – Gunz

Answer: 2

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Divergent plate margin cause sea floor spreading

Reason (R): Construction plate margins result in the formation of faults

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Microscale – Turbulence

(2) Planetary scale – Waves in the westerlies

(3) Mesoscale – Tornadoes

(4) Synepticscale – Valley and mountain winds

Answer: 4

10. Which one of the following statements about polar jet stream is not true?

(1) It moves northwards during summer.

(2) It supplies energy to the circulation of surface storms.

(3) Its velocity is greater during the summer.

(4) Its location roughly coincides with that of the polar front

Answer: 3

11. Supercooled water is water which is

(1) Produced from dry ice

(2) A special form of ice

(3) Still liquid at temperature below zero degree

(4) Partly liquid and partly solid

Answer: 3

12. A place located at a higher altitude generally experiences ________ than a low elevation place in an adjoining valley.

(1) A greater daily temperature range

(2) A lower annual mean temperature

(3) A lower daily temperature range

(4) Both a greater daily temperature range and lower annual mean temperature

Answer: 4

13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Hurricane cannot develop along the equatorial region

Reason (R): Coriolis force is at its maximum over the equator

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

14. The actual amount of water vapour in a given quantity of air is greatest for which of the following temperature-relative humidity combinations?

(1) 400C – 100%           

(2) 250C – 100%

(3) 00C – 100%             

(4) 300C – 50%

Answer: 1

15. What happens when Chinook wind is drawn down the leeward slopes of the mountain range?

(1) The saturation vapour pressure increases

(2) The relative humidity decreases

(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct

(4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong

Answer: 4

16. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – IList – II
I. Absolute humidityA. The ratio of weight of water vapour to the weight of per unit volume of dry air
II. Relative humidityB. Mass of water vapour in grams contained in one kilogram of air including water vapour
III. Specific humidityC. The ratio of the amount of water vapour actually present in the air having definite volume and temperature to its maximum amount air can hold at that temperature
IV. Mixing ratioD. The total weight of moisture content per unit volume of air.

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ABCD
(2)DCBA
(3)BDCA
(4)DBAC

Answer: 2

17. The sea attained its present level during the geological period

(1) Holocene     

(2) Miocene

(3) Cambrian   

 (4) Jurassic

Answer: 1

18. The pyramid of biomass is inverted in case of

(1) Forest ecosystem         (2) Grassland ecosystem

(3) Marine ecosystem       (4) Fresh water ecosystem

Answer: 4

19. Which one of the following percentages India contributes to world’s biodiversity?

(1) 2% (2) 4%

(3) 6% (4) 8%

Answer: 4

20. Which one of the following temperatures of sea water is favourable for the formation of coral reefs?

(1) Atleast 20 C

(2) Atleast 15 C

(3) Atleast 10 C

(4) Atleast 5 C

Answer: 1

21. Which one of the following countries has the world’s longest coastline?

(1) Australia

(2) Brazil

(3) Japan

(4) Canada

Answer: 4

22. The term ‘microtidal’ has been adopted to refer to spring tidal range

(1) > 6 m

(2) 4 – 6 m

(3) 2 – 4 m

(4) < 2 m

Answer: 4

23. The endemic species of India are mainly found in

(1) Eastern India

(2) Central India

(3) North-east India

(4) North-west India

Answer: 3

24. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I      (Author)   List – II   (Book)
C.A.M. KingA. The Physics of the Blown Sand and Desert Dunes
D.F. RitterB. To Interpret the Earth
III. R.A. Bagnold  C. Process Geomorphology
S.A. SchummD. Beaches and Coasts

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ABCD
(2)DCBA
(3)BDCA
(4)DBAC

Answer: 2

25. Who was the author of the book “Nature of Geography”?

(1) Isaih Bowman

(2) Rudolf Kjellen

(3) Fredrich Ratzel

(4) Richard Hartshorne

Answer: 4

26. Arrange the following scholars in the correct chronological order. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Aristotle

II. Eratosthenese

III. Plato

IV. Strabo

Codes:

(1) II III I IV

(2) I II IV III

(3) IV III I II

(4) III I II IV

Answer: 4

27. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Author)  List – II (Book)
Olto SchluterA. Political Geography
Von RichtofenB. Das Ausland
III. Oscar Paschel    C. Major Works on China
Friedrich RatzelD. Visible Contents of Landscape

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)DCBA
(2)ABDC
(3)BDCA
(4)CBAD

Answer: 1

28. Which one of the following pairs does not matched correctly?

(Author)                 (Book)

(1) Ibn Khaldun – Muqaddimah

(2) Al-Balakhi – Kitabul Ashkal

(3) Al-Masudi – Routes and Realms

(4) Al-Baruni – Kitab-al-Hind

Answer: 3

29. Who founded the Humanistic school of geography?

(1) Wolpert

(2) Tuan

(3) Kirk

(4) Harvey

Answer: 2

30. Which one of the following authors has stated “there are not necessities but everywhere possibilities and man as master of these possibilities is the judge of their use”?

(1) Semple

(2) Blashe

(3) Febvre

(4) Durkheim

Answer: 3

31. Who defined geography as human ecology?

(1) Hartshorne

(2) Schaefer

(3) Semple

(4) Barrows

Answer: 4

32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Geographer) List – II (Contribution)
I. L.D. StampA. Makers of Modern Geography
II. Alexander Von HumboldtB. Nature of Geography
III. Richard Hartshorne  C. Great Britain: Use and Misuse of Land
IV. R.E. DickinsonD. Cosmos

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)BDAC
(2)ACBD
(3)CBAD
(4)CDBA

Answer: 4

33. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I   (States)     List – II   (Literacy Rates as per Census of India, 2011)
I. TripuraA. 91.33%
I. GoaB. 94.00%
III. MizoramC. 88.70%
IV. KeralaD. 87.22%

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)DACB
(2)DCAB
(3)BCDA
(4)BCAD

Answer: 2

34. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (State/UTs)     List – II      (Decadal Growth Rate of Population  as per Census of India, 2011)
I. Arunachal PradeshA. 27.95%
II. Daman and Diu  B. 28.08%
III. Meghalaya  C. 53.76%
IV. PuducherryD. 26.03%

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)BCDA
(2)DCAB
(3)CBDA
(4)ACBD

Answer: 2

35. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Type of Village)List – II (Definitions)
I. Green villageVillages which have developed at an intersection of roads
II. Cruciform villageWith houses and church clustered around a small village green
III. DispersedFound along routeways or where conditions have impeded a village lateral development of the settlement
IV. Street villageIsolated farms and dwellings are scattered irregularly throughout countryside

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)CBAD
(2)BCDA
(3)ABCD
(4)BADC

Answer: 4

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Losch’s model is less restrictive than Christallers’s model

Reason (R): Losch treated each section as having separate range, threshold and hexagonal hinterland

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

37. Which one of the following principles explains importance of transport costs as it maximises the number of central places on straight line routes?

(1) Traffic

(2) Administrative

(3) Marketing

(4) Service

Answer: 1

38. Which one of the following criteria is used by Census of India 2011 to define the town?

(1) Population Growth

(2) Population Density

(3) Literacy Rate

(4) Sex Ratio

Answer:  2

39. In which year, M. Jefferson examined the size relationship between the primate city and next largest cities in a study entitled ‘The Law of the Primate City’?

(1) 1938

(2) 1937

(3) 1936

(4) 1939

Answer: 4

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Mineral Ores)List – II (Minerals)
ChalcopyriteA. Mica
LimoniteB. Iron
III. Muscovite  C. Aluminium
Bauxite  D. Copper

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ACDB
(2)DBAC
(3)BACD
(4)CDBA

Answer: 2

41. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The footloose industries are having very high mobility

Reason (R): The industry is skill-based.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Agricultural systems after Whittlesey)List – II (Countries)
Nomadic HerdingA. Brazil
Mediterranean AgricultureB. Morocco
III. Commercial Dairy Farming C. New Zealand
Livestock RanchingD. Mangolia

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)BADC
(2)ACBD
(3)DBCA
(4)CDAB

Answer: 3

43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Spain is one of the economically developed countries of the world

Reason (R): It has vast mineral resource base

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

44. Which one of the following authors identified three basic factors affecting interaction between regions: Complementarity, intervening opportunity and transferability?

(1) P.R. White

(2) H.L. Gauthier

(3) E. Taafe

(4) E.L. Ullman

Answer: 4

45. Which one of the following codes is correct to show the optimal location to profitability in different spatial cost / revenue situations in diagram given below?

revenue july 2016 paper 3

Codes:

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Answer: 3

46. How many number of intersecting links between six nodes are shown in the given figure? 

transport analysis

(1) 5

(2) 9

(3) 10

(4) 12

Answer: 4

47. Dolichocephalic human race has a cephalic index value of

(1) Less than 75

(2) Less than 80

(3) Less than 85

(4) Less than 90

Answer: 1

48. Throughout the 19th century, Russia was interested in acquiring Turkey mainly because Russia wanted to

(1) Maintain peace in the Middle East

(2) Access to the Mediterranean Sea

(3) Establish the Byzantine Empire

(4) Both (1) and (3)

Answer: 2

49. Which of the following statements is not true about Humanism in Geography?

(1) Humanism does not treat humans as machines.

(2) Humanistic geography gives importance to human awareness, human consciousness and human duality.

(3) Humanists accept the reduction of space and place to geometrical concepts of surface.

(4) Humanism developed and criticised positivism and quantitative revolution.

Answer: 3

50. Carta-Marina is

(1) A cartographic instrument used by Arab geographers

(2) A book authored by Al-Masudi.

(3) A map of America prepared by Wald Simular.

(4) An age succeeding to “Age of Discovery”.

Answer: 3

51. The book Polar Geopolitics is written by whom of the following?

(1) Richard Powell

(2) R.D. Dixit

(3) Vladimir Kolossov

(4) Taylor, P.J. and Jonston, R.J.

Answer: 1

52. “Social processes explain the spatial organization”, this statement pertains to

(1) Humanism

(2) Marxism

(3) Positivism

(4) Behaviourlism

Answer: 2

53. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I      List – II
HaggerstrandA. Theoretical geography
William BungeB. Geographical dissemination of Innovation
III. Gilbert WhiteC. Methods of regional analysis
Walter IsardD. Human responses to floods

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)DBAC
(2)CABD
(3)ACBD
(4)BADC

Answer: 4

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Social indicator movement was quickly developed in 1960s in the USA.

Reason (R): It grew in response to rise of a wide range of social problems in US society.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2

55. Which one of the following five year plans of India adopted the Harrod-Domar growth model?

(1) Second

(2) Fourth

(3) Third

(4) First

Answer: 4

56. Which one of the following contributors made refinements to W. Christaller’s central place by including concept of ‘city rich’ sectors and ‘city poor’ sectors?

(1) R.P. Mishra

(2) B.J.L. Berry

(3) Walter Isard

(4) August Losch

Answer: 4

57. Which one of the following indicators is not concerned with Human Development Index (H.D.I.)?

(1) Life expectancy at birth

(2) Social overhead capital

(3) Educational attainment

(4) Standard of living

Answer: 2

58. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): There are regional disparities in spatial organization of economy.

Reason (R): Interaction among inherent factors in economic activities affect the texture of spatial organization.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

59. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Type of Regions)List – II (Definitions)
I. Problem RegionsA. immense resource potentials but face socio-economic obstacles to technological transformations
II. Major RegionsB. those regions which show little promise of development in the near future
III. Prospective RegionsC. support advanced industrial areas and predominantly urban population
IV. Dynamic regionsD. those have minimum disparities within and distinctiveness from their neighbours in respect of regional character and resource for development

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)CBDA
(2)DABC
(3)BDAC
(4)ACDB

Answer: 3

60. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Type of Towns)List – II (Cities)
I. Port TownsSinghbhum, Kyonjhar and Rewa
II. Industrial TownsAgra, Jaipur and Madurai
III. Mineral Resource based townsBombay, Calcutta and Madras
IV. Historic townsBhilai, Rourkela and Jamshedpur

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)BACD
(2)DBAC
(3)ACDB
(4)CDAB

Answer: 4

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Metropolitan cities in general are flanked by satellite towns.

Reason (R): The towns have an important function to release the pressure of the city.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1

62. The famous Makrana marble mines are located in which of the following Indian States?

(1) Gujarat

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Maharashtra

Answer: 2

63. The Environmental Protection Act in India was passed when the government was headed by

(1) Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(2) Late Mr. V.P. Singh

(3) Late Mr. Lal Bahadur Shastri

(4) Late Mr. Rajiv Gandhi

Answer: 4

64. Which one of the following sequences of physical features is correct?

(1) Mountain, Tarai, Plain and Bhabhar

(2) Plain, Bhabhar, Tarai and Mountain

(3) Mountain, Plain, Bhabhar and Tarai

(4) Plain, Tarai, Bhabhar and Mountain

Answer: 4

65. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Indian Tribes)List – II (States)
I. BaigaA. Assam
II. BhotiasB. Sikkim
III. Karbi C. Uttrakhand
IV. RangpaD. Madhya Pradesh

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)CDBA
(2)DCAB
(3)DBAC
(4)CABD

Answer: 2

66. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Hill Name)List – II (State Name)
I. Mikir HillsA. Madhya Pradesh
II. AmarkantakB. Assam
III. Khasi Hills     C. Karnataka
IV. Baba Budan HillsD. Meghalaya

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)BCAD
(2)DACB
(3)BADC
(4)DCBA

Answer: 3

67. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (River Name)List – II (Urban Settlement)
I. GangaA. Vijayawada
II. KrishnaB. Tezpur
III. Brahmputra  C. Kanpur
IV. MahanadiD. Cuttack

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)ABCD
(2)CBAD
(3)CADB
(4)CABD

Answer: 4

68. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I (Sat. SensorsList – II (IFOV-Pan)
IRS-IC LISS IIA. 0.61 m
SPOT-5 HRVB. 5.80 m
III. DG-Quick Bird-2 C. 8.00 m
ADEOS-AVNIRD. 5.00 m

Codes:

IIIIIIIV
(1)DBCA
(2)BDAC
(3)ABCD
(4)BADC

Answer: 2

rainfall mean value

Answer: 3

70. Which one of the following diagrams can be used to represent non-spatial attribute data ?

(1) Flow line

(2) Bars and Cubes

(3) Choropleth

(4) Isoline

Answer: 2

71. Which one of the following correlation coefficients is mismatched with its value?

(1) Perfect positive

(2) Imperfect negative

(3) No correlation

(4) Positive significant

Answer: 2

72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other Labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A): Partial correlation is a method of dealing with three or more variables.

Reason (R): Basically, it is the correlation between two variables holding the third variable constant.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2

73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): There are data restrictions in using Lorenz curve since variable must be expressed as frequencies and negative values cannot be included.

Reason (R): This technique is difficult to be applied to study of continuous variables.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

scale july

Answer: 4

75. Which one of the following codes given for abbreviations correctly depicts landscape models?

(a) DEM

(b) DRG

(c) DLG

(d) DTM

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

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